A 79-year-old patient is taking a diuretic for treatment of hypertension. This patient is very independent and wants to continue to live at home. The nurse will know that which teaching point is important for this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Diuretics can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Step 2: Orthostatic hypotension increases the risk of falling and injury, especially in older adults. Step 3: By instructing the patient to take extra precautions when standing up, the nurse helps prevent falls and injuries. Step 4: This teaching point is crucial for promoting the patient's safety and independence at home. Summary: Choice A is incorrect because the timing of diuretic intake with meals is not as critical as preventing falls. Choice B is incorrect as skipping doses can lead to uncontrolled hypertension. Choice C is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can have negative consequences and potassium supplements may not be necessary. Choice D is correct as it addresses the potential side effect of orthostatic hypotension and emphasizes safety measures.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The increase of second messengers concentration, such as cAMP, cGMP, and Ca2+, leads to the activation of protein kinases and subsequent protein phosphorylation. This is because second messengers act as signaling molecules that trigger a cascade of intracellular events, including the activation of protein kinases. Protein kinases then phosphorylate target proteins, modulating their activity and initiating various cellular responses. Therefore, choice B is correct as it accurately describes the downstream effect of increased second messengers' concentration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established signaling pathway involving second messengers and protein kinases.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Spinal anesthesia. Spinal anesthesia involves injecting local anesthetics directly into the subarachnoid space, which is within the spinal canal. This allows for the anesthetic to block sensation in the lower part of the body. Topical anesthesia (A) is applied to the surface of the skin, infiltrative anesthesia (B) involves injecting local anesthetics into tissues surrounding the surgical site, and regional anesthesia (C) includes nerve blocks to numb specific areas. Spinal anesthesia is distinct as it targets the spinal nerves directly within the epidural or subarachnoid spaces.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Weakness of all skeletal muscles. Excessive stimulation of muscarinic receptors would not lead to weakness of skeletal muscles because muscarinic receptors are mainly found in smooth muscles and glands, not skeletal muscles. A: Abdominal cramps, diarrhea, B: Increased salivation, excessive bronchial secretion, and C: Miosis, bradycardia are all symptoms of excessive muscarinic receptor stimulation as these receptors are involved in various functions in the body such as gastrointestinal motility, salivation, bronchial secretions, pupil constriction, and heart rate regulation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Mivacurium is the correct answer as it is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent with a short duration of action due to its rapid metabolism by plasma esterases. Succinylcholine (A) is a depolarizing agent, Tubocurarine (B) and Pancuronium (D) are nondepolarizing agents with longer durations of action compared to Mivacurium.