A 79-year-old client is admitted with pneumonia. Which symptom would most likely indicate the need for further evaluation?

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Question 1 of 9

A 79-year-old client is admitted with pneumonia. Which symptom would most likely indicate the need for further evaluation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest pain and pleuritic breathing. This indicates possible complications like pleurisy or pleural effusion, requiring further evaluation. A: Persistent cough with sputum production is common in pneumonia. C: Shortness of breath is a typical symptom of pneumonia. D: Fever and chills are also common in pneumonia. However, chest pain and pleuritic breathing are more indicative of potential complications that may require immediate attention.

Question 2 of 9

When deciding on an initial treatment option for an acute flare of atopic dermatitis, unresponsive to emollient therapy, the next best choice for treatment is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% (Betanate). When managing an acute flare of atopic dermatitis unresponsive to emollient therapy, topical corticosteroids like betamethasone are often the first-line treatment due to their anti-inflammatory properties. Betamethasone is a potent corticosteroid that can help reduce inflammation, itching, and redness associated with atopic dermatitis. Oral corticosteroids (Choice A) are generally reserved for severe cases due to potential systemic side effects. Desonide (Choice C) is a milder topical corticosteroid suitable for maintenance therapy but may not be potent enough for acute flares. Pimecrolimus (Choice D) is a calcineurin inhibitor used for moderate to severe atopic dermatitis and is generally not the first choice for initial treatment of acute flares.

Question 3 of 9

The following information is recorded in the health history: "I feel really tired." Which category does it belong to?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Present illness. The statement "I feel really tired" falls under the present illness category because it describes the current health concern the individual is experiencing. This section focuses on the details of the current symptoms, their duration, severity, and any associated factors. It helps in understanding the progression and impact of the current health issue. A: Chief complaint typically refers to the main reason for seeking medical help, usually a symptom or problem that brought the individual to the healthcare provider. C: Personal and social history covers information about the individual's lifestyle, habits, and social support system. D: Review of systems involves systematically asking about symptoms related to different body systems, which is not the case in the given statement.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following is most likely benign on breast examination?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: One breast larger than the other is most likely benign on breast examination. This is because breast asymmetry is a common and typically benign finding in women. It is important to note that a significant difference in breast size may warrant further evaluation, but in general, slight variations in size are normal. Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect: A: Dimpling of the skin resembling that of an orange is concerning for peau d'orange appearance, which can be a sign of underlying breast cancer. C: One nipple inverted can be a sign of an underlying breast issue, such as a mass or tumor. D: One breast with a dimple when the patient leans forward can be a sign of an underlying breast abnormality, such as a tumor pulling on the skin. In summary, breast asymmetry (Choice B) is the most likely benign finding, while the other choices may indicate underlying breast issues that require further evaluation.

Question 5 of 9

Symptoms consistent with later-stage human immunodeficiency disease (HIV) typically include all of the following except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent vomiting. This is because persistent vomiting is not typically associated with later-stage HIV disease. Night sweats, lymphadenopathy for more than 3 months, and persistent, unexplained fatigue are commonly seen in later-stage HIV. Vomiting may occur in earlier stages due to opportunistic infections, but it is not a hallmark symptom of advanced HIV.

Question 6 of 9

Which of these statements about frailty are false?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because clinical diagnosis of anxiety or depression can indeed have an effect on frailty rates. Anxiety and depression can contribute to the development and progression of frailty through various mechanisms such as decreased physical activity, poor nutrition, and social isolation. This can lead to a higher risk of frailty in individuals with mental health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because both prominent frailty models (e.g., Fried's phenotype model and Rockwood's accumulation of deficits model) do consider age as a component for defining frailty, individuals who are prefrail are at a higher risk of progressing to frailty rather than becoming robust, and frailty diagnosis has been shown to be valuable in preoperative assessment as it helps identify patients who may not do well with surgical interventions.

Question 7 of 9

Which is true of the pectinate or dentate line?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The pectinate or dentate line is the border between the anal canal and the rectum. This is true because it represents the transition between the endoderm-derived upper anal canal and the ectoderm-derived lower anal canal. It is an important anatomical landmark in colorectal surgery and in distinguishing different pathologies in the anal region. Choice A is incorrect because the pectinate or dentate line is not typically palpable. Choice B is incorrect as it does not demarcate areas supplied by different nervous systems. Choice D is incorrect as the pectinate or dentate line is visible on proctoscopic examination due to its distinct appearance.

Question 8 of 9

All of the following about the Medicare Part D prescription medication benefit plan are true except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because beneficiaries do have out-of-pocket expenses for each prescription filled under Medicare Part D. This is typically in the form of copayments or coinsurance. A: Medicare Advantage plans often include Part D coverage, making statement A true. B: There are indeed multiple companies offering Part D plans, so statement B is true. C: The monthly premium for Part D coverage can vary, but in 2019 it was indeed around $30, making statement C true as well.

Question 9 of 9

Jacob, a 33-year-old construction worker, complains of a "lump on his back" over his scapula. It has been there for about a year and is getting larger. He says his wife has been able to squeeze out a cheesy-textured substance on occasion. He worries this may be cancer. When gently pinched from the side, a prominent dimple forms in the middle of the mass. What is most likely?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sebaceous cyst. A sebaceous cyst typically presents as a lump underneath the skin that can be squeezed to release a cheesy substance, consistent with Jacob's description. The formation of a prominent dimple when gently pinched is characteristic of a cyst, indicating it is filled with fluid or semi-solid material. Sebaceous cysts are usually benign and can grow slowly over time. Incorrect choices: A: An enlarged lymph node - Unlikely as lymph nodes are typically not associated with cheesy discharge or the formation of a dimple when pinched. C: An actinic keratosis - Unlikely as actinic keratosis is a precancerous skin condition caused by sun exposure, not presenting with cheesy discharge or a dimple. D: A malignant lesion - Unlikely as malignant lesions usually do not produce cheesy discharge and are more aggressive in growth compared to a sebaceous cyst.

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