ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 79-year-old client is admitted with pneumonia. Which symptom would most likely indicate the need for further evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest pain and pleuritic breathing. This indicates possible complications like pleurisy or pleural effusion, requiring further evaluation. A: Persistent cough with sputum production is common in pneumonia. C: Shortness of breath is a typical symptom of pneumonia. D: Fever and chills are also common in pneumonia. However, chest pain and pleuritic breathing are more indicative of potential complications that may require immediate attention.
Question 2 of 9
Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are associated with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct: Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are classic signs of infective endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless erythematous macules on palms/soles, petechiae are small red/purple spots due to microemboli, and Osler nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers/toes. These findings indicate systemic embolization and immune complex deposition in infective endocarditis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not typically present with these specific dermatologic findings.
Question 3 of 9
A 78-year-old man with multi-infarct dementia, chronic kidney disease, congestive heart failure, and uncontrolled hypertension develops confusion, restlessness, and combativeness. Which of the pharmacologic agents would be the best choice for treating the agitation associated with his delirium?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-line antipsychotic commonly used to manage agitation in delirium due to its rapid onset and minimal sedative effects. It acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps to reduce agitation and combativeness. Melatonin (A) is not effective for acute agitation. Diazepam (C) can worsen confusion in elderly patients and is not recommended for delirium. Gabapentin (D) is not indicated for managing agitation in delirium and may not be effective in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
When measuring the fundal height of a pregnant female at 32 weeks gestation, which measurement would the NP suspect fetal growth?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 32 cm. At 32 weeks gestation, fundal height should typically correspond to the number of weeks of gestation. This is known as the McDonald's rule. The NP would suspect fetal growth if the fundal height is not within a range of +/- 2 cm from the expected measurement. In this case, 32 cm aligns with the expected fundal height for a pregnancy at 32 weeks gestation. Therefore, it indicates appropriate fetal growth. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the expected fundal height for a pregnancy at 32 weeks gestation, suggesting possible issues with fetal growth.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic smoking presents with a persistent cough and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lung cancer. The patient's symptoms of chronic smoking, persistent cough, and weight loss are concerning for malignancy. Lung cancer is a common consequence of long-term smoking and can present with these symptoms. Chronic bronchitis (A) typically presents with cough and mucus production but not necessarily weight loss. Emphysema (C) is characterized by shortness of breath and is less likely to cause weight loss. Asthma (D) usually presents with wheezing and shortness of breath, not typically weight loss.
Question 6 of 9
An 85-year-old man with newly diagnosed nonvalvular atrial fibrillation comes to the office for a follow-up. Which medication change would be most appropriate for reducing his stroke risk?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop aspirin and begin apixaban 5 mg twice a day. The rationale is that for stroke risk reduction in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, anticoagulation therapy with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like apixaban is preferred over antiplatelet therapy like aspirin. DOACs have been shown to be more effective in reducing stroke risk with a lower bleeding risk compared to warfarin. Choice A is incorrect as aspirin alone is not sufficient for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Choice B is incorrect as warfarin has more monitoring requirements and potential drug interactions compared to DOACs like apixaban. Choice D is incorrect as aspirin and apixaban together are not recommended due to increased bleeding risk.
Question 7 of 9
Guidelines for the primary prevention of stroke recommend that aspirin be used in which one of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because guidelines for primary stroke prevention recommend using aspirin in individuals whose risk of stroke is high enough for the benefits to outweigh the risks. This is based on assessing individual risk factors such as age, hypertension, diabetes, smoking, and history of cardiovascular diseases to determine if the potential benefits of aspirin therapy in reducing the risk of stroke outweigh the potential risks such as gastrointestinal bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin should not be used regardless of risk level, based on gender, or in specific populations without considering individual risk factors to ensure the benefits outweigh the risks.
Question 8 of 9
What was the primary significance of the Crookes tube in the development of modern imaging technologies?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It was the first device to produce X-rays. The Crookes tube, invented by William Crookes, was crucial in the development of modern imaging technologies because it was the first device to produce X-rays. X-rays revolutionized medical diagnostics and imaging, leading to significant advancements in healthcare. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary significance of the Crookes tube was its role in producing X-rays, not demonstrating electromagnetic radiation principles, paving the way for the electron microscope, or advancements in nuclear medicine.
Question 9 of 9
Why would a combined hormonal contraceptive be contraindicated in a 36-year-old patient with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, obesity, chronic smoking, and a sedentary lifestyle?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The patient's age (36 years) and chronic smoking are the main reasons why a combined hormonal contraceptive would be contraindicated. Age over 35 and tobacco use increase the risk of cardiovascular complications with hormonal contraceptives. Obesity (choice A), type 2 diabetes (choice B), and a sedentary lifestyle (choice D) are also risk factors, but they are not the primary reasons for contraindicating combined hormonal contraceptives in this case.