ATI RN
Psychotropic Medication Quiz Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 78-year-old man has a history of a cerebrovascular accident. The nurse notes that when he walks, his left arm is immobile against the body with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder. His left leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. What type of gait disturbance is this individual experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Spastic hemiparesis. This individual is displaying classic signs of spastic hemiparesis, a type of gait disturbance commonly seen after a cerebrovascular accident. The immobile left arm with flexion and adduction, along with the stiff and extended left leg that circumducts, are indicative of upper motor neuron damage affecting the corticospinal tract. This results in increased muscle tone, exaggerated deep tendon reflexes, and weakness on one side of the body. Scissors gait (choice A) is characterized by legs crossing over each other during walking and is typically seen in spastic diplegia. Cerebellar ataxia (choice B) presents with uncoordinated movements, wide-based staggering gait, and intention tremors, which are not present in this case. Parkinsonian gait (choice C) is characterized by shuffling steps, decreased arm swing, and festination, which do not match the symptoms described
Question 2 of 5
The parent of an adolescent with schizophrenia asks a nurse, 'My child’s doctor ordered a positron-emission tomography (PET) scan. What is that?' Select the nurse’s best reply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: PET is a special scan that shows blood flow and activity in the brain. Rationale: 1. PET scans use a radioactive substance injected into the bloodstream to highlight areas of high metabolic activity in the brain. 2. This helps in assessing brain function by showing how well different areas of the brain are working. 3. It is commonly used in diagnosing conditions like schizophrenia to observe brain activity patterns that may indicate the presence of the disorder. Summary: A: Incorrect - PET does not use a magnetic field or gamma waves and does not rely on metal implants. B: Incorrect - PET is not an x-ray image and does not specifically show structures or past brain injuries. C: Incorrect - PET does not pass an electrical current or measure brain wave activity; it focuses on blood flow and metabolic activity.
Question 3 of 5
The therapeutic action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) blocks neurotransmitter reuptake, causing:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: increased concentration of neurotransmitters in the synaptic gap. MAOIs inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which breaks down neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine. By blocking this enzyme, MAOIs increase the levels of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic gap, enhancing their effects. This results in improved mood and decreased symptoms of depression or anxiety. Choice B is incorrect because MAOIs do not directly affect the concentration of neurotransmitters in the serum. Choice C is incorrect as MAOIs do not cause destruction of receptor sites. Choice D is incorrect because MAOIs do not directly stimulate the limbic system; rather, they modulate neurotransmitter levels to improve symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse can anticipate anticholinergic side effects will be likely when a patient is taking:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: fluphenazine (Prolixin). Fluphenazine is a typical antipsychotic medication that exerts its effects by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. This action leads to an increase in dopamine levels, which can cause anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. The other choices, lithium (A), buspirone (B), and risperidone (C), do not typically exhibit significant anticholinergic side effects. Lithium is used to treat bipolar disorder, buspirone is an anxiolytic medication, and risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that has a lower risk of causing anticholinergic effects compared to typical antipsychotics like fluphenazine.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse prepares to administer an antipsychotic medication to a patient with schizophrenia. Additional monitoring of the medication’s effects and side effects will be most important if the patient is also diagnosed with which health problem? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Parkinson disease. Patients with Parkinson's disease are at increased risk of developing extrapyramidal side effects when taking antipsychotic medications. The nurse should closely monitor the patient for symptoms such as tremors, muscle rigidity, and bradykinesia. This is crucial to prevent worsening of Parkinson's symptoms. Incorrect options: B: Graves disease - Antipsychotic medications do not directly interact with Graves disease, so additional monitoring is not necessary. C: Osteoarthritis - Antipsychotic medications do not have a significant impact on osteoarthritis, so additional monitoring is not required. D: Epilepsy - While some antipsychotic medications can lower the seizure threshold, epilepsy is not directly related to the need for additional monitoring in this context.