A 78-year-old male is being treated for hypertension. The nurse knows that the most appropriate first-line therapy in older adults is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diuretics. In older adults, diuretics are considered the most appropriate first-line therapy for hypertension due to their effectiveness in reducing blood pressure and preventing complications such as heart failure. Diuretics are well-tolerated, have a long history of use, and are cost-effective. They are especially beneficial in older adults with volume overload or fluid retention. Beta-blockers (B) may be less effective in older adults and can have more side effects. ACE inhibitors (C) are commonly used but may pose risks of hyperkalemia and renal dysfunction in older adults. Calcium channel blockers (D) are effective but may increase the risk of falls and fractures in older adults.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinal stenosis. The symptoms described suggest neurogenic claudication, which is a hallmark of spinal stenosis. Pain worsening with ambulation and improving with lumbar flexion is characteristic of spinal stenosis due to narrowing of the spinal canal leading to compression of nerves. Ankylosing spondylitis (A) presents with inflammatory back pain and stiffness, not neurogenic claudication. Bursitis (C) involves inflammation of bursae, not typically associated with leg pain and numbness. Cauda equina syndrome (D) presents with sudden-onset severe back pain, urinary retention, and saddle anesthesia, which are not consistent with the described symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lymph node. A mobile mass that is palpable and moves in multiple directions is characteristic of a lymph node. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are part of the immune system and can move freely when touched. Incorrect choices: A: Cancer - A cancerous mass would typically be fixed and not mobile. C: Deep scar - Scars are usually fixed and do not move when touched. D: Muscle - Muscles are usually deeper in the body and not typically palpable as a mobile mass.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dopamine agonist. In early PD, dopamine agonists are preferred due to their lower risk of motor complications compared to levodopa. Dopamine agonists help improve motor symptoms by directly stimulating dopamine receptors. COMT inhibitors are usually used in combination with levodopa to prolong its effects. Levodopa is effective but can lead to motor complications with long-term use. Careful observation is not a treatment strategy and delays symptom management. Therefore, starting with a dopamine agonist is the most suitable option for early PD to manage symptoms effectively with minimal risk of motor complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is not effective during an acute asthma attack. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist used for maintenance therapy, not for acute attacks. It does not provide immediate relief. Choices B and C are incorrect because salmeterol's onset of action is not immediate, and it may take days to weeks to achieve full effect. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used in children under 12 years old.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Voluntary stopping of eating and drinking. This is legal throughout the United States because it is considered a patient's right to refuse food and water, even if it may lead to death. This decision is based on the principle of patient autonomy and respects the patient's wishes. Euthanasia (A) involves actively causing death, which is illegal in the United States. Palliative sedation (B) is providing medication to relieve suffering, but not with the intention of hastening death. Physician-assisted death (D) involves a physician providing medication for a patient to self-administer to end their life, which is not legal in all states.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are not known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more commonly associated with antipsychotic medications. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, irritation, and hyponatremia in older adults due to their effects on serotonin levels and platelet function. Extrapyramidal symptoms involve movement disorders like tremors and muscle rigidity, which are not typically seen with SSRIs. Therefore, A is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hirsutism. Hirsutism is the presence of excessive hair growth in a male pattern distribution in women, which is a common sign of hyperandrogenism. Elevated androgen levels can lead to hirsutism in women, especially in conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome. High pitch voice (A) and obesity (D) are not direct indicators of hyperandrogenism. While polycystic ovaries (C) can be associated with hyperandrogenism, the presence of hirsutism is a more specific and direct finding in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lung cancer. The patient's symptoms of chronic smoking, persistent cough, and weight loss are concerning for malignancy. Lung cancer is a common consequence of long-term smoking and can present with these symptoms. Chronic bronchitis (A) typically presents with cough and mucus production but not necessarily weight loss. Emphysema (C) is characterized by shortness of breath and is less likely to cause weight loss. Asthma (D) usually presents with wheezing and shortness of breath, not typically weight loss.