ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 78-year-old male is being treated for hypertension. The nurse knows that the most appropriate first-line therapy in older adults is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diuretics. In older adults, diuretics are considered the most appropriate first-line therapy for hypertension due to their effectiveness in reducing blood pressure and preventing complications such as heart failure. Diuretics are well-tolerated, have a long history of use, and are cost-effective. They are especially beneficial in older adults with volume overload or fluid retention. Beta-blockers (B) may be less effective in older adults and can have more side effects. ACE inhibitors (C) are commonly used but may pose risks of hyperkalemia and renal dysfunction in older adults. Calcium channel blockers (D) are effective but may increase the risk of falls and fractures in older adults.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is most likely benign on breast examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: One breast larger than the other is most likely benign on breast examination. This is because breast asymmetry is a common and typically benign finding in women. It is important to note that a significant difference in breast size may warrant further evaluation, but in general, slight variations in size are normal. Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect: A: Dimpling of the skin resembling that of an orange is concerning for peau d'orange appearance, which can be a sign of underlying breast cancer. C: One nipple inverted can be a sign of an underlying breast issue, such as a mass or tumor. D: One breast with a dimple when the patient leans forward can be a sign of an underlying breast abnormality, such as a tumor pulling on the skin. In summary, breast asymmetry (Choice B) is the most likely benign finding, while the other choices may indicate underlying breast issues that require further evaluation.
Question 3 of 5
Bill, a 55-year-old man, presents with pain in his epigastrium which lasts for 30 minutes or more at a time and has started recently. Which of the following should be considered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Bill's symptoms of epigastric pain lasting 30 minutes or more can be indicative of peptic ulcer, pancreatitis, or myocardial ischemia. Peptic ulcer can cause epigastric pain, pancreatitis presents with severe epigastric pain, and myocardial ischemia can manifest as epigastric discomfort. Considering all these possibilities is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all potential causes of Bill's symptoms. It is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis to ensure comprehensive evaluation and management.
Question 4 of 5
On examination of the neck, a dome-shaped lesion in the dermis forming a benign closed firm sac attached to the epidermis is noted on the right lateral side of the neck. The type of lesion is known as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the characteristics of the lesion described - dome-shaped, in dermis, benign, closed sac attached to epidermis. Step 2: A cutaneous cyst fits all these characteristics - it is a benign closed sac in the dermis with attachment to the epidermis. Step 3: Keloid (A) is an overgrowth of scar tissue, not a closed sac lesion. Tophi (B) are deposits of uric acid crystals, not a sac. Chondrodermatitis (D) is inflammation of cartilage and skin, not a closed sac lesion. Summary: A cutaneous cyst is the correct choice as it matches all the characteristics given, while the other options do not fit the description provided.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is not a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in older adults?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are not known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more commonly associated with antipsychotic medications. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, irritation, and hyponatremia in older adults due to their effects on serotonin levels and platelet function. Extrapyramidal symptoms involve movement disorders like tremors and muscle rigidity, which are not typically seen with SSRIs. Therefore, A is the correct answer.
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