ATI RN
Test Bank Physical Examination and Health Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 77-year-old retired nurse has an ulcer on a lower extremity that you are asked to evaluate when you do your weekly rounds at a local long-term care facility. All of the following are responsible for causing ulcers in the lower extremities except for which condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not typically associated with causing ulcers in the lower extremities. The most common causes of lower extremity ulcers are arterial insufficiency, venous insufficiency, and diminished sensation in pressure points. Arterial insufficiency leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, causing tissue damage and ulcers. Venous insufficiency results in poor circulation and increased pressure in the veins, leading to ulcers. Diminished sensation in pressure points, often seen in conditions like diabetes, can cause ulcers due to lack of feeling and increased risk of trauma. So, hypertension is not directly related to the development of lower extremity ulcers.
Question 2 of 9
The following information is best placed in which category? "The patient was treated for an asthma exacerbation in the hospital last year; the patient has never been intubated."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The information provided about the patient being treated for an asthma exacerbation and not being intubated falls under the category of adult illnesses. Asthma is a common respiratory condition that affects people of various ages but is more prevalent in adults. The fact that the patient was treated for an asthma exacerbation and has not required intubation indicates a relevant medical history related to adult illnesses and respiratory conditions. This information would be considered when evaluating and managing the patient's current health status and potential risks related to respiratory issues.
Question 3 of 9
A 17-year-old high school senior presents to your clinic in acute respiratory distress. Between shallow breaths he states he was at home finishing his homework when he suddenly began having right-sided chest pain and severe shortness of breath. He denies any recent traumas or illnesses. His past medical history is unremarkable. He doesn't smoke but drinks several beers on the weekend. He has tried marijuana several times but denies any other illegal drugs. He is an honors student and is on the basketball team. His parents are both in good health. He denies any recent weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. On examination you see a tall, thin young man in obvious distress. He is diaphoretic and is breathing at a rate of 35 breaths per minute. On auscultation you hear no breath sounds on the right side of his superior chest wall. On percussion he is hyperresonant over the right upper lobe. With palpation he has absent fremitus over the right upper lobe. What disorder of the thorax or lung best describes his symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of this 17-year-old high school senior is concerning for a spontaneous pneumothorax. A spontaneous pneumothorax occurs when air enters the pleural space, resulting in lung collapse. Risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax include tall, thin body habitus and smoking. In this case, the patient's sudden onset of right-sided chest pain and severe shortness of breath, along with absent breath sounds on the right side of the chest and hyperresonance on percussion, are consistent with a pneumothorax. The absence of lung sounds and fremitus on palpation over the right upper lobe further support this diagnosis. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma typically present with more chronic symptoms, while pneumonia is usually associated with fever, productive cough, and other signs of infection. Given the history and physical examination findings, spontaneous pneumothorax is the most
Question 4 of 9
He is afebrile and his cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. On visualization of the anus you see no inflammation, masses, or fissures. Digital rectal examination reveals a smooth, enlarged prostate. No discrete masses are felt. There is no blood on the glove or on guaiac testing. An analysis of the urine shows no red blood cells, white blood cells, or bacteria. What disorder of the anus, rectum, or prostate is this most likely to be?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the scenario is consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, typically seen in older males. The findings of a smooth, enlarged prostate on digital rectal examination without discrete masses, along with the absence of other alarming signs such as blood in the urine or on examination, make BPH the most likely diagnosis in this case.
Question 5 of 9
A 38-year-old woman comes to you and has multiple small joints involved with pain, swelling, and stiffness. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints. It commonly presents with pain, swelling, and stiffness in multiple small joints such as those in the hands, wrists, and feet. It is more prevalent in females in their 30s to 50s. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by chronic inflammation of the synovial membrane, leading to joint damage and deformities over time. Laboratory tests showing elevated inflammatory markers, such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), along with positive rheumatoid factor and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies, can help in confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 6 of 9
Susanne is a 27-year-old who has had headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue for the last 2 months. You have completed a thorough history, examination, and laboratory workup but have not found a cause. What would your next action be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Since the patient, Susanne, has been experiencing headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue for the last 2 months, and a thorough history, examination, and laboratory workup have not revealed a definitive cause, the next step would be to screen for depression. Depression can present with physical symptoms such as headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue. It is important to consider mental health factors that could be contributing to Susanne's symptoms before proceeding with further referrals to specialists. Screening for depression would help in determining if psychological factors are playing a role in her physical symptoms.
Question 7 of 9
A middle-aged man comes in because he has noticed multiple small, blood-red, raised lesions over his anterior chest and abdomen for the past several months. They are not painful and he has not noted any bleeding or bruising. He is concerned this may be consistent with a dangerous condition. What should you do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation of multiple small, blood-red, raised lesions over the anterior chest and abdomen in a middle-aged man raises concern for a condition known as cherry angiomas. Cherry angiomas are common benign vascular growths often seen in middle-aged and older individuals. They are typically asymptomatic and do not require treatment unless they are bothersome to the patient cosmetically.
Question 8 of 9
Otherwise she has had no health problems. Her father has high blood pressure. Her mother had unilateral breast cancer in her 70s. The patient denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. She is a family law attorney and is married. Her examination is essentially unremarkable. Which risk factor of her personal and family history most puts her in danger of getting breast cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most significant risk factor for breast cancer in the patient's personal and family history is having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer. This is because the age at which a family member was diagnosed with breast cancer can be indicative of potential genetic predispositions that may increase the patient's own risk of developing the disease. Women with a first-degree relative who was diagnosed with breast cancer before menopause (premenopausal) are at a higher risk themselves compared to those with a family history of postmenopausal breast cancer. In this case, the patient's mother had unilateral breast cancer in her 70s, which suggests a higher risk compared to postmenopausal breast cancer. Other factors such as early age at menarche or age at first live birth are also important in assessing breast cancer risk, but having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer is the most significant
Question 9 of 9
A 68-year-old retired banker comes to your clinic for evaluation of left shoulder pain. He swims for 30 minutes daily, early in the morning. He notes a sharp, catching pain and a sensation of something grating when he tries overhead movements of his arm. On physical examination, you note tenderness just below the tip of the acromion in the area of the tendon insertions. The drop arm test is negative, and there is no limitation with shoulder shrug. The patient is not holding his arm close to his side, and there is no tenderness to palpation in the bicipital groove when the arm is at the patient's side, flexed to 90 degrees, and then supinated against resistance. Based on this description, what is the most likely cause of his shoulder pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The description of the patient's left shoulder pain, with a sharp catching pain and a sensation of something grating during overhead movements, in addition to tenderness just below the tip of the acromion in the area of tendon insertions, is suggestive of calcific tendinitis. Calcific tendinitis occurs when calcium deposits form within a tendon, most commonly affecting the rotator cuff tendons. This condition can cause pain, tenderness, and limited range of motion, particularly with certain movements like overhead reaching. The negative drop arm test, lack of limitation with shoulder shrug, absence of tenderness to palpation in the bicipital groove, and the patient not holding his arm close to his side help differentiate calcific tendinitis from other shoulder pathologies like rotator cuff tendinitis, rotator cuff tear, and bicipital tendinitis.