ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis, the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis, is a significant risk factor for penile cancer. Phimosis can lead to poor hygiene, inflammation, and chronic irritation, increasing the risk of cancer development. The other choices (B: Priapism, C: Herpes simplex infection, D: Increasing age, E: Lack of circumcision) are not directly linked to penile cancer development. Priapism is prolonged and painful erection unrelated to penile cancer. Herpes simplex infection is a viral infection and not a primary risk factor for penile cancer. Increasing age is a general risk factor for many cancers, but it is not specific to penile cancer. Lack of circumcision has been associated with a slightly higher risk of penile cancer, but it is not as significant as phimosis.
Question 2 of 9
You are caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with genital herpes. When preparing a teaching plan for this patient, what general guidelines should be taught?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because thorough handwashing is essential in preventing the spread of genital herpes. This helps reduce the risk of transmission to other parts of the body or to other individuals. Sunbathing (B) does not eradicate the virus and can actually worsen symptoms. Massaging lesions with ointment (C) can aggravate the sores and lead to further infection. Self-infection (D) can occur from touching lesions during a breakout due to the highly contagious nature of the virus. Therefore, teaching the patient about thorough handwashing is crucial in managing and preventing the spread of genital herpes.
Question 3 of 9
You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative surgery. In this scenario, the patient's colon cancer has already progressed to stage IV with metastasis to the liver, indicating an advanced and incurable condition. Palliative surgery aims to alleviate symptoms, improve quality of life, and prolong survival without aiming for a cure. Reconstructive surgery (B) is typically done to restore form or function, which is not the primary goal in this case. Salvage surgery (C) is usually performed to rescue a situation where initial treatment has failed, which is not the case here. Prophylactic surgery (D) is preventive and is not appropriate in a situation where cancer is already present and advanced.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patients diarrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sandostatin. This drug is a somatostatin analog that can help manage HIV-related chronic severe diarrhea by reducing gastrointestinal secretions. Sandostatin works by inhibiting the release of various hormones and neurotransmitters in the gut, which can help control diarrhea in HIV patients. Rationale: A: Zithromax is an antibiotic that is not typically used to manage chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. C: Levaquin is also an antibiotic and not indicated for managing diarrhea in HIV patients. D: Biaxin is another antibiotic and not the appropriate choice for managing chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. In summary, Sandostatin is the correct choice as it specifically targets the underlying cause of diarrhea in HIV patients by reducing gastrointestinal secretions, whereas the other options are antibiotics that are not indicated for this purpose.
Question 5 of 9
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
Question 6 of 9
A 16-year-old has come to the clinic and asks to talk to a nurse. The nurse asks the teen what she needs and the teen responds that she has become sexually active and is concerned about getting HIV. The teen asks the nurse what she can do keep from getting HIV. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of consistent and correct condom use in preventing HIV transmission. Here's the rationale: 1. Abstinence is the most effective way to prevent HIV, but since the teen is sexually active, abstinence may not be feasible for her. 2. Using condoms consistently and correctly is the next best method for preventing HIV transmission during sexual activity. 3. Choice A is incorrect because it implies that using condoms is not effective, which is not true. 4. Choice B is incorrect because it only mentions female condoms, while both male and female condoms can be effective in preventing HIV. 5. Choice C is incorrect because while new prevention methods are being researched, the established method of consistent condom use remains the most effective.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with AIDS complicated by chronic diarrhea. What nursing intervention would be appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain a stool culture to identify possible pathogens. This is the most appropriate nursing intervention because chronic diarrhea in a patient with AIDS can be caused by various pathogens such as parasites, bacteria, or viruses. By obtaining a stool culture, the healthcare team can identify the specific pathogen responsible for the diarrhea and initiate targeted treatment. A: Positioning the patient in the high Fowler's position is not directly related to addressing the underlying cause of chronic diarrhea in this patient. B: Temporarily eliminating animal protein from the patient's diet may not be necessary or effective in treating chronic diarrhea without knowing the specific cause identified through stool culture. C: Making sure the patient eats raw fruit is not recommended as raw fruits can sometimes worsen diarrhea due to their high fiber content and potential for carrying pathogens. In summary, obtaining a stool culture is the most appropriate intervention as it helps identify the specific pathogen causing the diarrhea, while the other options do not directly address the underlying cause.
Question 8 of 9
Following a recent history of dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, a patient has received a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). When providing health education related to self-care, the nurse should address which of the following topics? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of condoms to prevent infecting others. This is important because PID is a sexually transmitted infection and using condoms can help prevent transmission to sexual partners. It is crucial to address this topic to ensure the patient understands the importance of safe sex practices. The other choices are incorrect: B: Appropriate use of antibiotics - While antibiotics are used to treat PID, this choice does not address self-care education for prevention. C: Taking measures to prevent pregnancy - While important for overall health, preventing pregnancy is not directly related to self-care for PID. D: The need for a Pap smear every 3 months - Pap smears are not directly related to PID management or prevention. E: The importance of weight loss in preventing symptoms - Weight loss is not a direct self-care measure for managing or preventing PID.
Question 9 of 9
The hospice nurse is caring for a 45-year-old mother of three young children in the patients home. During the most recent visit, the nurse has observed that the patient has a new onset of altered mental status, likely resulting from recently diagnosed brain metastases. What goal of nursing interventions should the nurse identify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The goal of nursing interventions in this scenario is to teach family members how to interact with and ensure safety for the patient with impaired cognition. This is the most appropriate response because it addresses the immediate need to provide the patient with appropriate care and support in their home environment. By educating the family on how to interact with the patient and ensure their safety, the nurse can help maintain a sense of normalcy for the patient and promote their well-being. Choice A is incorrect because sedating the patient may not be the best approach without considering other interventions first. Choice B is incorrect as moving the patient to an acute-care facility may not be necessary or feasible at this time. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on end-of-life care rather than addressing the immediate need of supporting the patient with altered mental status.