A 75 year old man is suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy and is being treated with terazosin. Which of the following adverse reaction would be expected taking this drug?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Orthostatic hypotension. Terazosin is an alpha-1 blocker commonly used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation can lead to vasodilation and subsequently cause a drop in blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse reaction of alpha-1 blockers due to this mechanism. The other choices, A: Erectile dysfunction, C: GI distress, and D: Gynecomastia are not typically associated with terazosin use. Erectile dysfunction can actually be improved with alpha-1 blockers as they relax smooth muscle in the prostate, allowing for easier urination and potentially improved sexual function. GI distress and gynecomastia are not common side effects of terazosin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Desmopressin reduces urine volume by mimicking the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). In central diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH production, so desmopressin can help by supplementing ADH. In renal diabetes insipidus, the kidneys do not respond to ADH, so desmopressin would not be effective. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because desmopressin does not address the underlying issue of kidney insensitivity to ADH. Choice C is incorrect because desmopressin is effective only in central diabetes insipidus. Choice D is incorrect because desmopressin is effective in central diabetes insipidus.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To note hematoma formation. After an angiography procedure, there is a risk of bleeding under the pressure dressing, leading to hematoma formation. By assessing the dressing frequently, the nurse can detect any signs of hematoma early, preventing complications such as compromised circulation or infection. Checking for frank bleeding (Choice A) is important but less likely to occur under a pressure dressing. Arterial occlusion (Choice C) is a serious but less immediate concern post-angiography. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice D) is also important but not specific to monitoring for hematoma formation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glomerulonephritis. Streptococcal infection can lead to poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), an immune-mediated inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This results in hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema. Pyelonephritis (choice A) is a bacterial infection of the kidneys, not related to streptococcal infection. Nephrolithiasis (choice B) is the formation of kidney stones, which is not directly linked to streptococcal infection. Chronic renal failure (choice C) is a long-term decline in kidney function, not typically caused by streptococcal infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine bacteria count of 100,000 colonies/mL indicates a significant bacterial infection, which is concerning for cystitis. This result suggests an active infection in the urinary tract, requiring prompt treatment. A: Serum WBC of 9000/mm³ is within the normal range and may not necessarily indicate an active infection. B: Urinalysis with 1-2 WBCs present is also within the normal range and may not be indicative of an acute infection. D: Serum hematocrit of 36% is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood and is not directly related to cystitis.