A 74-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department after bowel movement with bright red blood. Her blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg with a pulse of 118 beats/minute. She is on warfarin for anticoagulation and a stat INR is 7.2. The decision is made to start transfusing blood. What is the most appropriate treatment to reverse the warfarin?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Dextromethorphan (DM), a cough suppressant, can cause dizziness, hallucinations, and confusion, especially with alcohol, which amplifies CNS depression . Dialysis isn't standard for DM overdose; it's not an opioid , though it acts centrally; and addiction isn't the acute issue. The nurse considers dizziness as a key adverse effect, worsened by beer, guiding a response to seek medical help.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, reduces cerebral edema by drawing fluid into the vasculature, excreted via urine. Monitoring urine output ensures efficacy and prevents fluid overload or renal strain, critical in brain injury. BP and pupils matter but follow diuresis. Temperature is unrelated. Urine output aligns with mannitol's action, key in cerebral edema where ICP reduction hinges on fluid shift, making A the priority parameter.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.