ATI RN
Psychiatric Emergencies Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 73 year old woman has blood taken for her INR and is seen in the GP Surgery. She is taking clarithromycin. Which medication is most likely to have interacted with warfarin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Carbamazepine. Warfarin is a commonly used anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Carbamazepine is known to interact with warfarin by increasing its metabolism, leading to decreased warfarin levels in the blood and potentially reducing its anticoagulant effect. This can result in an increased risk of blood clot formation and thrombotic events. A) Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension and angina. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin. B) Atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin. D) Risedronate sodium is a bisphosphonate medication used to treat osteoporosis. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin. Educational Context: Understanding drug interactions is crucial in the management of patients, especially those on multiple medications. Healthcare providers need to be aware of potential interactions to prevent adverse effects and ensure the efficacy of treatment. In the case of warfarin, monitoring INR levels regularly and adjusting doses based on interactions can prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. This knowledge is essential in the field of psychiatry emergencies where patients may have complex medication regimens and comorbidities.
Question 2 of 5
A 72 year old man has worsening breathlessness and ankle swelling for 2 months. Which is the most appropriate monitoring test after starting ramipril?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate monitoring test after starting ramipril for a 72-year-old man with worsening breathlessness and ankle swelling is option D) Renal function. Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure. It can cause renal impairment, especially in elderly patients or those with pre-existing kidney issues. Monitoring renal function is crucial after starting ramipril because ACE inhibitors can lead to a decline in kidney function due to their effect on renal blood flow. Monitoring renal function through tests like serum creatinine and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) helps in early detection of any decline in kidney function, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further damage. Option A) Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a marker for heart failure and would be useful in assessing the severity of heart failure symptoms, but it is not the most appropriate monitoring test after starting ramipril. Option B) Creatine kinase is an enzyme found in muscles and is typically used to diagnose muscle damage, such as in cases of heart attack or muscular disorders. It is not directly related to monitoring renal function in patients on ACE inhibitors. Option C) Full blood count (FBC) is a broad test that looks at different components of blood like red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While FBC is valuable in assessing overall health, it is not specific to monitoring renal function in this context. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind monitoring specific parameters when initiating certain medications is essential for healthcare providers to ensure patient safety and optimize treatment outcomes. It reinforces the importance of individualizing patient care based on factors like age, comorbidities, and medication side effects. This case highlights the significance of regular monitoring to detect and manage potential medication-related complications proactively.
Question 3 of 5
A 65 year old man has worsening localised lumbar back pain and difficulty passing urine. He has multiple myeloma. Which is the most appropriate investigation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate investigation for the 65-year-old man with worsening localized lumbar back pain, difficulty passing urine, and a history of multiple myeloma is a MRI scan of the lumbar spine (Option C). The rationale behind choosing an MRI scan is that it is the most sensitive imaging modality for evaluating spinal cord compression, which could be a potential complication of multiple myeloma due to the presence of spinal tumors or pathological fractures. MRI can provide detailed information about the soft tissues, bone marrow, and neural structures in the lumbar spine, allowing for the detection of any compressive lesions or spinal cord abnormalities. Electromyogram (Option A) is not the most appropriate investigation in this case because it is used to evaluate muscle and nerve function, which would not provide information about potential spinal cord compression or structural lesions. A lumbar X-ray (Option B) may show bony changes associated with multiple myeloma such as lytic lesions, but it is less sensitive than an MRI for detecting soft tissue abnormalities or spinal cord compression. A myelogram (Option D) involves injecting a contrast dye into the spinal canal and then taking X-rays, which can be invasive and carries a higher risk compared to an MRI. It is usually reserved for cases where MRI is contraindicated or when MRI findings are inconclusive. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate diagnostic approach in patients with multiple myeloma and suspected spinal cord compression is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in the care of such patients. This case highlights the importance of selecting the most sensitive imaging modality to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management of spinal cord complications in patients with multiple myeloma.
Question 4 of 5
A 76 year old woman has severe dementia and her son locks her doors to prevent wandering. Which is the most appropriate course of action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate course of action is option D, which is to contact the local safeguarding team to raise concerns. This action is crucial because locking the doors to prevent wandering can potentially lead to issues of neglect and abuse in an elderly person with severe dementia. By involving the safeguarding team, the woman's safety and well-being can be properly assessed and appropriate interventions can be implemented to ensure she receives the necessary care and support. Option A, advising that the house key be kept with the neighbor, is not the best course of action because it does not address the underlying issues of potential neglect and abuse. Option B, arranging regular district nurse visits, may not be sufficient to address the urgent safety concerns presented in the situation. Option C, contacting a local care home, may not be appropriate without a proper assessment of the woman's needs and the circumstances surrounding her current situation. From an educational perspective, understanding how to identify and respond to psychiatric emergencies in vulnerable populations, such as elderly individuals with dementia, is crucial for healthcare professionals. It is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of patients in such situations and know how to involve the appropriate authorities to ensure proper interventions are implemented. This case highlights the ethical and legal responsibilities healthcare providers have in safeguarding the welfare of individuals in their care, especially in cases of suspected neglect or abuse.
Question 5 of 5
A 12 year old boy has painful blisters which burst leaving shallow lesions. He has eczema. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the most likely diagnosis for the 12-year-old boy with painful blisters that burst, leaving shallow lesions, and who has eczema is option C) Eczema herpeticum. Eczema herpeticum is a rare but serious viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus in individuals with pre-existing skin conditions like eczema. The correct answer is C because the presentation of painful blisters bursting in a child with eczema is indicative of a secondary herpes simplex virus infection, which can lead to Eczema herpeticum. Option A) Atopic eczema is a common form of eczema characterized by dry, itchy skin but does not typically present with painful blisters that burst. Option B) Chicken pox would present with vesicles in different stages of development, not necessarily painful blisters that burst leaving shallow lesions. Option D) Impetigo is a bacterial skin infection that presents with honey-colored crusts or fluid-filled blisters, not typically painful blisters that burst in a child with eczema. Understanding the differentiation between these conditions is crucial in the context of psychiatric emergencies to ensure appropriate and timely intervention for the child's skin condition, as well as addressing any psychological distress that may arise from the physical symptoms. Early recognition and management of Eczema herpeticum can prevent serious complications and improve the child's overall well-being.