ATI RN
Physical Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 73-year-old nurse comes to your office for evaluation of new onset of tremors. She is not on any medications and does not take herbs or supplements. She has no chronic medical conditions. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She walks into the examination room with slow movements and shuffling steps. She has decreased facial mobility and a blunt expression, without any changes in hair distribution on her face. Based on this description, what is the most likely reason for the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation of new onset tremors, slow movements with shuffling steps (bradykinesia), decreased facial mobility, and blunt expression are characteristic features of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement, typically presenting with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. The presence of these symptoms in this patient, along with the absence of any other medical conditions or medication use, points toward a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Other conditions like Cushing's syndrome, nephrotic syndrome, and myxedema are unlikely based on the patient's clinical presentation.
Question 2 of 5
How much does cardiovascular risk increase for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Research studies have shown that for every increment of 20 mm Hg in systolic blood pressure and 10 mm Hg in diastolic blood pressure, the cardiovascular risk approximately doubles. Therefore, the cardiovascular risk increases by 50% for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure. This underlines the importance of maintaining healthy blood pressure levels to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases.
Question 3 of 5
A 68-year-old mechanic presents to the emergency room for shortness of breath. You are concerned about a cardiac cause and measure his jugular venous pressure (JVP). It is elevated. Which one of the following conditions is a potential cause of elevated JVP?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Constrictive pericarditis is a condition where the pericardium becomes thickened and rigid, impairing diastolic filling of the heart. This leads to an increase in venous pressure, including the jugular venous pressure (JVP). The elevated JVP in constrictive pericarditis is a result of impaired ventricular filling rather than forward failure seen in heart failure. Mitral stenosis can lead to an increased JVP due to elevated left atrial pressure, but constrictive pericarditis is a more common cause of elevated JVP in this scenario. Aortic aneurysm is not typically associated with elevated JVP.
Question 4 of 5
You are a student in the vascular surgery clinic. You are asked to perform a physical examination on a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs. Which of the following aspects is important to note when you perform your examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When examining a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs, it is important to note the size, symmetry, and skin color of the lower extremities. These aspects can provide valuable information about the circulation and potential complications related to the disease. Changes in size, such as muscle wasting or atrophy, can indicate poor circulation and muscle ischemia. Asymmetry between the two legs may point to a significant difference in blood supply to the limbs. Skin color changes, such as pallor or cyanosis, can suggest impaired blood flow. Monitoring and documenting these findings are crucial for assessing the progression or improvement of the disease and guiding treatment interventions.
Question 5 of 5
Frank is a 24-year-old man who presents with multiple burning erosions on the shaft of his penis and some tender inguinal adenopathy. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of multiple burning erosions on the shaft of the penis along with tender inguinal adenopathy is indicative of genital herpes caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). Primary herpes simplex infection typically presents with painful ulcers and lymphadenopathy. The ulcers are often shallow with well-defined borders and can be associated with systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise. In contrast, primary syphilis is characterized by a painless chancre at the site of infection, usually on the genitals. Chancroid can also present with painful ulcers, but it is less common in developed countries. Gonorrhea typically presents with urethral discharge, dysuria, or other symptoms of urethritis, rather than erosions on the penis shaft.
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