A 73-year-old nurse comes to your office for evaluation of new onset of tremors. She is not on any medications and does not take herbs or supplements. She has no chronic medical conditions. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She walks into the examination room with slow movements and shuffling steps. She has decreased facial mobility and a blunt expression, without any changes in hair distribution on her face. Based on this description, what is the most likely reason for the patient's symptoms?

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Question 1 of 5

A 73-year-old nurse comes to your office for evaluation of new onset of tremors. She is not on any medications and does not take herbs or supplements. She has no chronic medical conditions. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She walks into the examination room with slow movements and shuffling steps. She has decreased facial mobility and a blunt expression, without any changes in hair distribution on her face. Based on this description, what is the most likely reason for the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of new onset tremors, slow movements with shuffling steps (bradykinesia), decreased facial mobility, and blunt expression are characteristic features of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement, typically presenting with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. The presence of these symptoms in this patient, along with the absence of any other medical conditions or medication use, points toward a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Other conditions like Cushing's syndrome, nephrotic syndrome, and myxedema are unlikely based on the patient's clinical presentation.

Question 2 of 5

A 35-year-old archaeologist comes to your office (located in Phoenix, Arizona) for a regular skin check-up. She has just returned from her annual dig site in Greece. She has fair skin and reddish-blonde hair. She has a family history of melanoma. She has many freckles scattered across her skin. From this description, which of the following is not a risk factor for melanoma in this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the given scenario, being a 35-year-old archaeologist with fair skin, a family history of melanoma, and many freckles scattered across her skin are all risk factors for melanoma. Age (choice A) is a relevant risk factor as melanoma incidence increases with age. Actinic lentigines (choice C), also known as sunspots, are precancerous skin lesions that can increase the risk of developing melanoma. Heavy sun exposure (choice D) is a significant risk factor as cumulative sun exposure over time can contribute to the development of melanoma.

Question 3 of 5

His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernia, but on his digital rectal examination you palpate a soft, smooth, nontender pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum. What anal, rectal, or prostate disorder best fits his presentation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A rectal polyp is a growth that originates from the inner lining of the rectum and protrudes into the rectal canal. It may present as a soft, smooth, nontender mass on digital rectal examination. Rectal polyps are usually benign, but some may have the potential to become cancerous if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to evaluate and remove polyps to prevent complications. In this case, the description of a pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum is most suggestive of a rectal polyp.

Question 4 of 5

Josh is a 14-year-old boy who presents with a sore throat. On examination, you notice dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on his left side with a deep breath. What does this indicate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on the left side with a deep breath is suggestive of splenomegaly. However, this finding alone is not definitive for an enlarged spleen. The size of the spleen can vary, and further examination is required to confirm if the spleen is indeed enlarged. Therefore, Option B is the most appropriate choice as it indicates that the spleen is possibly enlarged, and close attention should be paid to further examination to confirm its status. Further workup, such as imaging studies or blood tests, may be necessary to evaluate the size and function of the spleen in this case.

Question 5 of 5

With auscultation she has distant air sounds and she has late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes. On cardiac examination the S and S are distant and an S is heard over the apex. 1 2 3 What disorder of the chest best describes her symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The given symptoms of distant air sounds, late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes, distant S1 and S2 heart sounds, and an S3 heart sound heard over the apex are all characteristic findings of left-sided heart failure. Distant air sounds and late inspiratory crackles indicate pulmonary congestion due to fluid accumulation in the lungs as a result of left-sided heart failure. The distant heart sounds and presence of an S3 are signs of left ventricular dysfunction. In contrast, pneumonia would typically present with more localized abnormal breath sounds and other symptoms such as fever and productive cough. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) would manifest with prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing, not late inspiratory crackles. Pleural pain is typically associated with sharp chest pain exacerbated by breathing movements, and it does not explain the constellation of symptoms described in this case. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis based on the provided symptoms

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