A 73-year-old nurse comes to your office for evaluation of new onset of tremors. She is not on any medications and does not take herbs or supplements. She has no chronic medical conditions. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She walks into the examination room with slow movements and shuffling steps. She has decreased facial mobility and a blunt expression, without any changes in hair distribution on her face. Based on this description, what is the most likely reason for the patient's symptoms?

Questions 27

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Physical Assessment Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 73-year-old nurse comes to your office for evaluation of new onset of tremors. She is not on any medications and does not take herbs or supplements. She has no chronic medical conditions. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She walks into the examination room with slow movements and shuffling steps. She has decreased facial mobility and a blunt expression, without any changes in hair distribution on her face. Based on this description, what is the most likely reason for the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of new onset tremors, slow movements with shuffling steps (bradykinesia), decreased facial mobility, and blunt expression are characteristic features of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement, typically presenting with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. The presence of these symptoms in this patient, along with the absence of any other medical conditions or medication use, points toward a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Other conditions like Cushing's syndrome, nephrotic syndrome, and myxedema are unlikely based on the patient's clinical presentation.

Question 2 of 9

A 68-year-old mechanic presents to the emergency room for shortness of breath. You are concerned about a cardiac cause and measure his jugular venous pressure (JVP). It is elevated. Which one of the following conditions is a potential cause of elevated JVP?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Constrictive pericarditis is a condition where the pericardium becomes thickened and rigid, impairing diastolic filling of the heart. This leads to an increase in venous pressure, including the jugular venous pressure (JVP). The elevated JVP in constrictive pericarditis is a result of impaired ventricular filling rather than forward failure seen in heart failure. Mitral stenosis can lead to an increased JVP due to elevated left atrial pressure, but constrictive pericarditis is a more common cause of elevated JVP in this scenario. Aortic aneurysm is not typically associated with elevated JVP.

Question 3 of 9

Chris is a 20-year-old college student who has had abdominal pain for 3 days. It started at his umbilicus and was associated with nausea and vomiting. He was unable to find a comfortable position. Yesterday, the pain became more severe and constant. Now, he hesitates to walk, because any motion makes the pain much worse. It is localized just medial and inferior to his iliac crest on the right. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation is highly suggestive of appendicitis, especially given the migration of pain from the periumbilical region to the right lower quadrant (just medial and inferior to the iliac crest). The worsening of pain with motion, along with associated symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and fever, are typical features of appendicitis. The classic presentation of appendicitis is pain starting around the umbilicus (due to visceral innervation) and then shifting to the right lower quadrant (due to irritation of the parietal peritoneum). Surgical intervention is usually required promptly to prevent complications like perforation, which can lead to peritonitis and sepsis.

Question 4 of 9

On visualization of the penis he is circumcised and there are no lesions and no discharge from the meatus. His scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. His prostate examination is unremarkable. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. By catheter you get a urine sample and the analysis is unremarkable. You send the boy with his mother to the emergency room for further workup. What is the most likely diagnosis for this young man's symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of severe testicular pain with a red, tense scrotum, and absent cremasteric reflex on one side is highly concerning for testicular torsion. Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle. The affected testicle can become ischemic and necrotic within hours, necessitating prompt diagnosis and intervention to avoid permanent damage or loss of the testicle.

Question 5 of 9

Josh is a 14-year-old boy who presents with a sore throat. On examination, you notice dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on his left side with a deep breath. What does this indicate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on the left side with a deep breath is suggestive of splenomegaly. However, this finding alone is not definitive for an enlarged spleen. The size of the spleen can vary, and further examination is required to confirm if the spleen is indeed enlarged. Therefore, Option B is the most appropriate choice as it indicates that the spleen is possibly enlarged, and close attention should be paid to further examination to confirm its status. Further workup, such as imaging studies or blood tests, may be necessary to evaluate the size and function of the spleen in this case.

Question 6 of 9

With auscultation she has distant air sounds and she has late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes. On cardiac examination the S and S are distant and an S is heard over the apex. 1 2 3 What disorder of the chest best describes her symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The given symptoms of distant air sounds, late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes, distant S1 and S2 heart sounds, and an S3 heart sound heard over the apex are all characteristic findings of left-sided heart failure. Distant air sounds and late inspiratory crackles indicate pulmonary congestion due to fluid accumulation in the lungs as a result of left-sided heart failure. The distant heart sounds and presence of an S3 are signs of left ventricular dysfunction. In contrast, pneumonia would typically present with more localized abnormal breath sounds and other symptoms such as fever and productive cough. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) would manifest with prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing, not late inspiratory crackles. Pleural pain is typically associated with sharp chest pain exacerbated by breathing movements, and it does not explain the constellation of symptoms described in this case. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis based on the provided symptoms

Question 7 of 9

A 19-year-old college sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of joint pains. The student has been back from spring break for 2 weeks; during her holiday, she went camping. She notes that she had a red spot, shaped like a target, but then it started spreading, and then the joint pains started. She used insect repellant but was in an area known to have ticks. She has never been sick and takes no medications routinely; she has never been sexually active. What is the most likely cause of her joint pain?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely cause of the 19-year-old college sophomore's joint pain is Lyme disease. The presentation of a red spot shaped like a target (erythema migrans) that spreads, along with joint pain, is classic for Lyme disease. Additionally, the history of camping in an area known to have ticks and the history of using insect repellent support the likelihood of a tick-borne illness like Lyme disease.

Question 8 of 9

A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week history of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described, such as sneezing, itchy watery eyes, clear nasal discharge, ear pain, and nonproductive cough, are classic signs of allergic rhinitis, commonly known as seasonal allergies. Allergic rhinitis is an inflammatory response triggered by allergens in the environment such as pollen, dust mites, or pet dander. The immune system overreacts to these allergens, releasing histamine and other chemicals that cause the symptoms experienced by the patient. In this case, the most likely pathologic process underlying the symptoms is an allergic response rather than infection, inflammation, or vascular issues.

Question 9 of 9

When crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi clear with a cough, which of the following is a likely etiology?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi clear with a cough, it is suggestive of bronchitis. Bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchial tubes, often due to a viral infection, leading to the production of excess mucus. The characteristic sounds such as crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi can be heard on auscultation due to the presence of mucus in the airways. The act of coughing helps to clear the mucus from the airways, resulting in the temporary resolution of these abnormal sounds. In contrast, asthma, cystic fibrosis, and heart failure are not typically associated with crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi that clear with a cough.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days