ATI RN
NCLEX questions on chemotherapy drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 73-year-old man with overwhelming sepsis requiring intravenous fluid support, pressors, and antibiotics is now beginning to improve clinically. The rationale against the use of a bacteriostatic antibiotic in this patient includes which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In severe sepsis, bactericidal antibiotics are preferred to kill bacteria rapidly and remove viable organisms, as bacteriostatic drugs only inhibit growth, relying on the immune system, which may be compromised.
Question 2 of 5
A 35-year-old female patient has just received a bone marrow transplant and is taking immunosuppressants. Two days after starting her immunosuppression regimen, she develops dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis. A galactomannan test confirms a diagnosis of aspergillosis. She is given multiple drugs to combat this new infection, one of which is caspofungin. How does caspofungin work?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Caspofungin inhibits β-1,3-glucan synthesis, a key component of the fungal cell wall, leading to cell lysis, effective against Aspergillus in immunocompromised patients.
Question 3 of 5
A 71-year-old man with osteomyelitis is treated with aminoglycosides. Blood cultures are drawn and reveal resistance to this antibiotic class. What is the most likely reason for this to occur?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Aminoglycoside resistance often occurs via plasmid-encoded acetyltransferases, which modify the drug, preventing it from binding to bacterial ribosomes.
Question 4 of 5
A 52-year-old man with recurrent Pseudomonas infections now has another infection. Culture and sensitivity now indicate that this pathogen is not sensitive to chloramphenicol. What is the most likely reason for development of resistance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pseudomonas resistance to chloramphenicol is often due to R factors (resistance plasmids), which encode enzymes like acetyltransferases that inactivate the drug.
Question 5 of 5
A 34-year-old man with a history of recurrent tuberculosis on a multidrug regimen, including isoniazid. He presents to his primary care physician complaining of paresthesias of his hands and feet. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Isoniazid causes peripheral neuritis (neuropathy) by depleting vitamin B6 (pyridoxine), leading to paresthesias; supplementation with B6 can prevent this.