A 72-year-old woman reports vaginal dryness that interferes with coitus. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Medications are glyburide, chlorthalidone, and acetaminophen. What would be your first step in therapy?

A 72-year-old woman reports vaginal dryness that interferes with coitus. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Medications are glyburide, chlorthalidone, and acetaminophen. What would be your first step in therapy?

A 70-year-old man has bothersome lower urinary tract syndrome (LUTS) associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). His symptoms are no longer well managed with lifestyle modifications. He is interested in medication to reduce his urinary symptoms but is concerned about possible side effects. He notes that he is recently married and sexual activity is very important to him. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate for this patient?

Several years later, Mr. Hunter, who is now 75 years old, seeks additional intervention for his urinary symptoms that have progressed further. He now experiences slow urinary stream, hesitancy, straining, and a feeling of incomplete emptying in addition to the previous urinary urgency and frequency. At times, he has noted blood in his urine. He has had five urinary tract infections (UTIs) in the past 2 years. His current IPSS is 24, with a bother score of 5 indicating severe voiding symptoms with high impact on his quality of life. Mr. Hunter’s updated medical history includes hypertension, coronary artery disease, benign prostatic hyperplasia, cataract surgery 4 years ago, and two falls within the past year while rushing to the bathroom during the night. Current medications are aspirin, metoprolol, finasteride, and tamsulosin. Physical examination reveals an enlarged, nontender prostate, about 50 g in size without discrete nodules. Upon further evaluation, the intermittent hematuria is attributed to BPH. Postvoid residual volume is 110 mL. Uroflowmetry reveals urinary flow rate of 12 mL/s. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 72-year-old man with colonic diverticulosis was admitted to the hospital with gastrointestinal bleeding and abdominal pain. The following day, the patient was positive on the Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) performed by geriatric consultation services. Which of the following is NOT predisposed by delirium in this patient?

The remission rate of depressed patients who are 65 years and older to initial antidepressant treatment is: