A 72-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with vision loss over the past year. She has noticed painless loss of her peripheral vision. Her peripheral vision has become darker. She is diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma and started on medication. She returns in 1 month and says her vision has improved, but now her blue eyes turned brown. What was the most likely medication given to treat her glaucoma?

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Safety Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 4

A 72-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with vision loss over the past year. She has noticed painless loss of her peripheral vision. Her peripheral vision has become darker. She is diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma and started on medication. She returns in 1 month and says her vision has improved, but now her blue eyes turned brown. What was the most likely medication given to treat her glaucoma?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 2 of 4

Ten months after starting procainamide therapy for cardiac arrhythmias, a 56-year-old man develops arthritis and other symptoms consistent with drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus. Results of a blood test are positive for antinuclear antibodies. This finding is consistent with which of the following genetic polymorphisms in drug metabolism?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is metabolized by N-acetyltransferase (NAT2), and slow acetylators (E) have a genetic polymorphism leading to reduced acetylation. This results in accumulation of the parent drug, which is associated with an increased risk of drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), characterized by antinuclear antibodies, arthritis, and systemic symptoms. Debrisoquine 4-hydroxylase (CYP2D6) deficiency affects drugs like beta-blockers, not procainamide. COMT deficiency impacts catecholamine metabolism, irrelevant here. G6PD deficiency causes hemolysis, not SLE. Phenytoin hydroxylase relates to anticonvulsant metabolism.

Question 3 of 4

A new drug, Drug X, relieves pain by interacting with a specific receptor in the body. Drug X binds irreversibly to this receptor, resulting in a long duration of action. Which of the following types of bonds is most likely formed between Drug X and its receptor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Irreversible binding implies a strong, permanent interaction, typically via covalent bonds (A), which form stable chemical linkages (e.g., aspirin with COX). Hydrogen (B), hydrophobic (C), ionic (D), and van der Waals (E) bonds are weaker and reversible, not supporting a long duration of action as described.

Question 4 of 4

The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes the presence of gross hematuria and large areas of bruising on the patient's body. The nurse notifies the health care prescriber and anticipates what medication will be ordered?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Warfarin, an anticoagulant, inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and excessive bleeding (hematuria, bruising) suggests overdose or supratherapeutic INR. Phytonadione (Vitamin K, c) reverses warfarin’s effect by restoring clotting factor synthesis. Heparin is another anticoagulant, protamine reverses heparin (not warfarin), and potassium is unrelateNote: Answer key says (b), but is correct for warfarin reversal.

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