ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 71-year-old man who has chronic back pain after falling from a first-floor apartment 25 years ago is managed with a morphine pump for his chronic pain. He also had a long history of chronic diarrhea that preceded his accident. The pump has been in place for 22 years. Which of the following effects will still likely be maintained by the device at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term morphine via pump sustains certain effects. Constipation persists-tolerance doesn't fully develop to GI μ-receptor effects, unlike analgesia , euphoria , or sedation (E). Pupil dilation is incorrect; morphine causes miosis. After 22 years, constipation remains a chronic issue, reflecting opioid pharmacology.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which antidote?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. In cases of warfarin overdose or excessive anticoagulation leading to bleeding events, the antidote is vitamin K. Vitamin K helps to reverse the effects of warfarin by promoting the production of clotting factors that are inhibited by warfarin. Administering vitamin K can help normalize the patient's coagulation parameters and stop bleeding in cases of warfarin over-anticoagulation.
Question 3 of 5
Codeine sulfate is prescribed to a client with a severe back pain. Which of the following side effect is associated with this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Codeine sulfate, a narcotic analgesic, commonly causes constipation as a side effect. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system, which can slow down gastrointestinal motility, leading to constipation. Clients taking codeine sulfate should be advised to increase their fluid intake, eat high-fiber foods, and possibly use stool softeners to prevent or alleviate constipation. Monitoring for constipation and providing appropriate interventions are essential to improve the client's comfort and prevent complications.
Question 4 of 5
A 57-year-old man with a history of intermittent angina normally takes sublingual nitroglycerin when attacks occur. He states that he does not take this medication because it makes him feel 'funny... itch uncontrollably... and have pain radiating to his toes.' These symptoms have never been witnessed by his family members who are with him all the time. What is the best course of action for the treating physician to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Unusual nitroglycerin reactions (itching, toe pain) unwitnessed by family suggest noncompliance or psychogenic issues. Encourage use and explore reasons . Psychiatric or behavioral consults are premature. Switching or antipsychotics (E) ignores clarification. This approach ensures proper angina management.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following antipsychotic agents is considered to be the most potent and, thus, have the highest risk of extrapyramidal symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluphenazine, a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic, strongly blocks D2 receptors, requiring lower doses for efficacy but increasing EPS risk (e.g., dystonia, parkinsonism) due to intense dopamine antagonism in the nigrostriatal pathway. Thioridazine and chlorpromazine, low-potency first-generation drugs, have weaker D2 affinity, causing more sedation and anticholinergic effects than EPS. Quetiapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, has low D2 potency and minimal EPS. Clozapine avoids EPS with broad receptor activity. Fluphenazine's potency, measured by dose equivalence and clinical data, correlates with its elevated EPS risk, distinguishing it here.