A 70-year-old man has developed prosphetic stomatitis. Apart of this he was found to have an evident lesion of mouth corners. Microscopical examination revealed large ovoid gram-positive cells. What microorganisms are most likely to be the leading etiological agent of such a lesion?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. In the context of a 70-year-old man with angular cheilitis (lesion at the corners of the mouth) and stomatitis, the presence of large ovoid gram-positive cells points towards Candida species, which are yeast fungi. Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen that can cause oral thrush and angular cheilitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as elderly people. Candida fungi are known to appear as large ovoid cells under microscopic examination. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria and are not typically associated with large ovoid cells seen in this case. C: Staphylococci are also gram-positive bacteria and are not known to present as large ovoid cells in this context. D: Neisseria are gram-negative bacteria and are not the usual etiological agents for oral lesions like angular cheilitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are used to treat influenza by inhibiting viral replication or easing symptoms. Acyclovir's mechanism of action targets different viruses, making it ineffective for treating influenza.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Mycoplasma hominis, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Ureaplasma urealyticum are all known to cause non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis. These organisms can infect the urogenital tract and lead to inflammation and symptoms in both males and females. Each of these bacteria has been identified as a common cause of these conditions through research and clinical studies. Therefore, since all three organisms are capable of causing non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis, the correct answer is D. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because each of them alone can cause these conditions, making option D the most comprehensive and accurate choice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: PCR. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is the most suitable method for detecting genitourinary chlamydiosis due to its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting the genetic material of Chlamydia trachomatis. PCR can detect even low levels of the pathogen, providing accurate results. A: Cultural diagnostic is not as sensitive as PCR and may take longer to produce results. B: ELISA detects antibodies, which may not be present in early stages of infection, leading to false-negative results. C: CFT (Complement Fixation Test) is an older method with lower sensitivity compared to PCR for detecting chlamydiosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasma. The crescent-shaped protozoa with pointed ends and blue cytoplasm described in the question are characteristic of Toxoplasma gondii, the causative agent of toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasma staining with Romanovsky-Giemsa method typically shows these specific morphological features. Plasmodium causes malaria and does not exhibit the described morphology. Leishmania and Trypanosoma are both kinetoplastid parasites, but they do not typically present as crescent-shaped protozoa with blue cytoplasm. Therefore, based on the specific characteristics described in the question, the correct answer is Toxoplasma.