ATI RN
OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 70-year-old man has developed prosphetic stomatitis. Apart of this he was found to have an evident lesion of mouth corners. Microscopical examination revealed large ovoid gram-positive cells. What microorganisms are most likely to be the leading etiological agent of such a lesion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. In the context of a 70-year-old man with angular cheilitis (lesion at the corners of the mouth) and stomatitis, the presence of large ovoid gram-positive cells points towards Candida species, which are yeast fungi. Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen that can cause oral thrush and angular cheilitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as elderly people. Candida fungi are known to appear as large ovoid cells under microscopic examination. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria and are not typically associated with large ovoid cells seen in this case. C: Staphylococci are also gram-positive bacteria and are not known to present as large ovoid cells in this context. D: Neisseria are gram-negative bacteria and are not the usual etiological agents for oral lesions like angular cheilitis.
Question 2 of 9
The highly specialized structure that protects the fetus from microorganisms is the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: placenta. The placenta is a highly specialized structure that forms during pregnancy and serves as a barrier, protecting the fetus from harmful microorganisms that could potentially harm the developing baby. It facilitates the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste between the mother and fetus while preventing the passage of most bacteria and viruses. The uterus (A) is the organ where the fetus develops, but it does not have the specific protective functions of the placenta. The vagina (C) is the birth canal and does not provide protection from microorganisms for the fetus. The mammary gland (D) is responsible for producing milk after birth and is not directly involved in protecting the fetus from microorganisms during pregnancy.
Question 3 of 9
Which one is NOT included in the etiology of osteomyelitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: EBV. Osteomyelitis is primarily caused by bacteria, not viruses like Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The main pathogens involved in osteomyelitis are typically Staphylococcus aureus, including Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), Haemophilus influenzae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. EBV is not a causative agent of osteomyelitis. It is crucial to differentiate between bacterial and viral etiologies in infectious diseases to guide appropriate treatment.
Question 4 of 9
In a bacteriology lab, bacteria cultured from fecal samples produced red colonies on Endo agar. What is the most likely microorganism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli typically produces red colonies on Endo agar due to its ability to ferment lactose. This results in the production of acid, causing the colonies to appear red. Salmonella and Shigella are non-lactose fermenters, so they would appear colorless or transparent on Endo agar. Proteus vulgaris is not commonly associated with red colonies on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristic lactose fermentation pattern, E. coli is the most likely microorganism in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with bacterial endocarditis had Gram-positive cocci in chains isolated from blood cultures. The organism was catalase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This is because Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci in chains bacterium that is catalase-negative, making it the most likely causative agent in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common pathogen causing bacterial endocarditis. Summary of other choices: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, so it is unlikely in this case. C: Enterococcus faecalis is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium, but it is catalase-negative, which is not consistent with the given information. D: Micrococcus luteus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, making it an unlikely causative agent.
Question 6 of 9
Bacterioscopic examination of chancre material revealed some mobile, long, convoluted microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils. These features are typical for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium that appears as long, thin, and spiral-shaped microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils under the microscope. This characteristic morphology is specific to Treponema species, making it the correct choice. Borrelia, Leptospira, and Vibrios have different shapes and arrangements under the microscope, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has been brought to the hospital with the complaints of headache, pain in left hypochondrium. He has been ill for 1,5 weeks. The sudden illness began with the increase of body temperature up to 39, 90C. In 3 hours the temperature decreased and hydropoiesis began. The attacks repeat rhythmically in 48 hours. The patient had visited one an African country. The doctors have suspected malaria. What method of laboratory diagnostics is necessary to use?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct method of laboratory diagnostics for suspected malaria is blood examination. Malaria is diagnosed by detecting the presence of the Plasmodium parasite in the patient's blood. This can be done through microscopy to identify the parasite in a blood smear or through rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) that detect specific antigens produced by the parasite. Blood examination allows for the direct visualization of the parasite, making it the most accurate method for diagnosing malaria. Immunological tests, stool examination, and urine examination are not suitable for diagnosing malaria as the parasite primarily resides in the red blood cells. Stool and urine examinations are more commonly used for diagnosing gastrointestinal or urinary tract infections, respectively.
Question 8 of 9
Spheroplasts are bacteria with defective cell walls which:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because spheroplasts are bacteria with defective cell walls that have a parietal layer (peptidoglycan layer) and a defective peptidoglycan layer. This is because spheroplasts have lost their rigid cell wall structure, leading to an incomplete peptidoglycan layer. Choice B is incorrect as the cytoplasmic membrane is not directly affected by the loss of cell wall integrity. Choice C is incorrect because spheroplasts do not have an outer membrane defect, but rather a defect in the peptidoglycan layer. Choice D is incorrect because spheroplasts still have peptidoglycan, even though it is defective.
Question 9 of 9
During a microbiology session, students observed flagellated protozoa with an undulating membrane in vaginal discharge samples. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoa that causes the sexually transmitted infection trichomoniasis. The presence of an undulating membrane in vaginal discharge samples is characteristic of Trichomonas vaginalis. Giardia lamblia causes gastrointestinal illness, not vaginal infections. Trypanosoma brucei causes African sleeping sickness transmitted by tsetse flies. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis transmitted by sandflies.