Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

OpenStax Microbiology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 70-year-old man has developed prosphetic stomatitis. Apart of this he was found to have an evident lesion of mouth corners. Microscopical examination revealed large ovoid gram-positive cells. What microorganisms are most likely to be the leading etiological agent of such a lesion?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. In the context of a 70-year-old man with angular cheilitis (lesion at the corners of the mouth) and stomatitis, the presence of large ovoid gram-positive cells points towards Candida species, which are yeast fungi. Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen that can cause oral thrush and angular cheilitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as elderly people. Candida fungi are known to appear as large ovoid cells under microscopic examination. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria and are not typically associated with large ovoid cells seen in this case. C: Staphylococci are also gram-positive bacteria and are not known to present as large ovoid cells in this context. D: Neisseria are gram-negative bacteria and are not the usual etiological agents for oral lesions like angular cheilitis.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following bacteria is capable of surviving in extreme heat?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bacillus subtilis. Bacillus subtilis is a thermophilic bacterium capable of surviving in extreme heat due to its heat-resistant spores. It forms spores when exposed to unfavorable conditions, allowing it to withstand high temperatures. Escherichia coli (A), Staphylococcus aureus (C), and Clostridium botulinum (D) are mesophilic bacteria that do not have the same heat resistance mechanisms as Bacillus subtilis, making them unable to survive in extreme heat conditions.

Question 3 of 5

A female patient consulted a doctor about a sense of epigastric discomfort, nausea and anorexia. A duodenal content analysis revealed lamblia. What drug should be prescribed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia, which presents with symptoms such as epigastric discomfort, nausea, and anorexia. Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates the parasite. Chingamin, Rifampicin, Isoniazid, and Acyclovir are not effective against Giardia lamblia and are used to treat other infections caused by different pathogens. Therefore, Metronidazole is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with a history of diarrhea of several weeks' duration. Which of the following may be the cause?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia enterocolitica. Y. enterocolitica is known to cause gastroenteritis and diarrhea in humans. It is often associated with contaminated food or water. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, not diarrhea. Corynebacterium diphtheria causes respiratory diphtheria. Neisseria meningitidis is associated with meningitis and septicemia, not diarrhea. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and history, Y. enterocolitica is the most likely cause of the diarrhea in this case.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is an active transport mechanism?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: pinocytosis. This is an active transport mechanism where cells engulf fluids or solutes through vesicles. Energy is required to transport substances against a concentration gradient. A is incorrect as pinocytosis is an active process, not passive like pinocytosis. B is incorrect as facilitated diffusion is a passive process that uses carrier proteins to move substances down a concentration gradient. C is incorrect as filtration is a passive process that relies on pressure gradients to move substances across a barrier. Therefore, D is the correct choice as it involves the active transport of substances into the cell.

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