A 70-year old male diagnosed with BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) asks the nurse about his disease. The best response would be:

Questions 75

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 70-year old male diagnosed with BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) asks the nurse about his disease. The best response would be:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal imbalances are the primary cause of BPH in aging males. As men age, testosterone levels decrease and estrogen levels may increase relative to testosterone, leading to prostate gland growth. This is why hormonal imbalances are more likely the cause of BPH in older males. Explanation of other choices: A: Chronic infection of the urinary tract does not directly cause BPH, although it can lead to similar symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency. B: Chronic cigarette smoking is not a direct cause of BPH, although it can contribute to overall prostate health and exacerbate symptoms. D: Chronic obstruction of the bladder due to stone is a separate condition from BPH, although it can cause similar urinary symptoms.

Question 2 of 9

A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: anorexia. In the early stage of hepatic inflammatory disorder, anorexia is the most likely symptom/sign. This is because hepatic inflammation can lead to a decrease in appetite, resulting in anorexia. Dark urine (A) is commonly associated with liver dysfunction but typically occurs later in the disease process. Occult blood in stools (B) is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than early hepatic inflammation. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is a later manifestation of liver disease. Therefore, anorexia is the most likely symptom in the early stages of hepatic inflammatory disorder.

Question 3 of 9

The client is suspected of having myasthenia gravis. Edrophonium (Tensilon) 2 mg is administered intravenously to determine the diagnosis. Which of the following indicates that the client has myasthenia gravis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, the administration of edrophonium will temporarily improve muscle strength due to increased availability of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This improvement should be noted within 30 to 60 seconds after the administration of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because joint pain is not a typical response to edrophonium in the context of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect because feelings of faintness, dizziness, hypotension, and flushing are more indicative of a cholinergic crisis, which occurs when too much edrophonium is administered. Choice D is incorrect because an increase in muscle strength post-edrophonium administration would not be expected in a client with myasthenia gravis.

Question 4 of 9

The physician orders tests to determine if a client has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which test result confirms SLE?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: An above-normal anti-deoxyribonucleic acid. In SLE, the body produces antibodies against its own DNA, leading to the presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies. Elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibodies are specific to SLE, confirming the diagnosis. A: Increased total serum complement levels are seen in SLE due to complement activation but are not specific to SLE. C: Negative antinuclear antibody test is not consistent with SLE, as ANA positivity is common in SLE. D: Negative lupus erythematosus cell test is not specific to SLE as lupus erythematosus cells are not always present.

Question 5 of 9

Nurse Raymond is handling a group of student nurses and he is teaching them about fluids and electrolytes. He is correct when he says that a substance moves from an area of higher concentration, this is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Diffusion Rationale: Diffusion is the movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This process occurs naturally to achieve equilibrium. In the context of fluids and electrolytes, this movement helps maintain balance within the body. Unlike osmosis, which involves the movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane, diffusion applies to the movement of all types of substances. Filtration involves the movement of substances through a barrier under pressure, and active transport requires energy to move substances against a concentration gradient. Therefore, the correct answer is diffusion as it aligns with the principle of movement from high to low concentration for achieving equilibrium.

Question 6 of 9

Choose the condition that exhibits blood values with a low pH and a high PCO :

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Respiratory acidosis Rationale: 1. Respiratory acidosis is caused by inadequate ventilation leading to increased PCO₂ and decreased pH. 2. Low pH indicates acidosis, and high PCO₂ indicates respiratory component. 3. Metabolic acidosis (B) results from non-respiratory causes. 4. Respiratory alkalosis (C) is characterized by high pH and low PCO₂. 5. Metabolic alkalosis (D) is caused by non-respiratory factors with high pH.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the ff. nursing interventions will help prevent complications in the patient with Bell’s Palsy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Lubricating eye drops Rationale: Lubricating eye drops help prevent complications such as corneal abrasions in patients with Bell's Palsy by keeping the eye moist and preventing dryness. Bell's Palsy can cause difficulty in closing the eye properly, leading to dryness and potential damage to the cornea. Using lubricating eye drops helps maintain eye health. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Megavitamin therapy - Not directly related to preventing complications in Bell's Palsy. B: Application of ice to the affected area - Ice may not address eye dryness or prevent corneal abrasions. C: Elastic bandages - Not relevant to preventing complications associated with Bell's Palsy.

Question 8 of 9

Before administering a food feeding the nurse knows to perform which of the following assessments/

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the GI tract is crucial before feeding to ensure proper digestion and absorption. Bowel sounds, last BM, and distention indicate GI function. The client's neurologic status and gag reflex are important to prevent aspiration. Option B is not a primary concern before feeding. Option C is incorrect as formula should be warmed to room temperature before feeding.

Question 9 of 9

A seizure characterized by loss of consciousness and tonic spasms of the trunk and extremities rapidly followed by repetitive generalized clonic jerking is classified as:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Generalized seizure. This type of seizure involves both hemispheres of the brain from the onset, leading to loss of consciousness and tonic-clonic jerking. It is characterized by widespread, synchronized electrical discharges. A: Focal seizures start in one area of the brain, leading to localized symptoms without loss of consciousness. B: Jacksonian seizures are a type of focal seizure characterized by a progression of jerking movements from one body part to another. D: Partial seizures involve only one part of the brain, leading to localized symptoms or altered consciousness without loss of awareness.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days