A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis is prescribed denosumab. Denosumab works by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting osteoclast activity. Denosumab is a monoclonate antibody that specifically targets and inhibits osteoclasts, the cells responsible for bone resorption. By inhibiting osteoclast activity, denosumab helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect because denosumab does not promote osteoblast activity. Choice C is incorrect as denosumab does not affect the absorption of calcium in the intestine. Choice D is incorrect as denosumab does not increase the levels of parathyroid hormone.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blocking leukotriene receptors in the lungs. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist, specifically targeting the cysteinyl leukotriene receptor, to reduce inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and mucus production in asthma. This mechanism helps in preventing asthma symptoms and attacks. Choice A is incorrect because blocking beta-2 adrenergic receptors would lead to bronchoconstriction and worsen asthma symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as histamine release is not the main target of montelukast. Choice D is also incorrect as stimulating acetylcholine release would not help in managing asthma and would likely exacerbate symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioids, including respiratory depression, during an overdose. By competitively binding to opioid receptors, naloxone displaces the opioids and restores normal breathing. Flumazenil (A) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Atropine (C) is a medication used to treat certain types of poisoning and to increase heart rate, but it is not indicated for opioid overdose. Vitamin K (D) is used to treat bleeding disorders by promoting blood clotting and has no role in opioid overdose reversal.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Sitagliptin is a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor. 2. DPP-4 enzyme breaks down incretin hormones like GLP-1. 3. By inhibiting DPP-4, sitagliptin increases incretin hormone levels. 4. Incretin hormones stimulate insulin release and inhibit glucagon. 5. Thus, sitagliptin indirectly increases insulin secretion. Summary: A: Incorrect - Sitagliptin indirectly increases insulin secretion. B: Incorrect - Sitagliptin does not affect glucose absorption. D: Incorrect - Sitagliptin does not increase renal glucose excretion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peripheral edema. Calcium channel blockers cause vasodilation leading to fluid accumulation in the peripheral tissues, resulting in peripheral edema. Dry mouth (A) and coughing (B) are more commonly associated with other medications like antihistamines and ACE inhibitors. Bradycardia (D) is a potential side effect of calcium channel blockers but is less common than peripheral edema.