ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene. Raloxifene works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors in bone tissue, inhibiting osteoclast activity, and reducing bone resorption. This helps to maintain bone density in patients with osteoporosis. Choices B and C are incorrect as raloxifene does not directly promote osteoblast activity or increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not inhibit the synthesis of collagen.
Question 2 of 5
A 60-year-old male with chronic asthma is prescribed salmeterol. Salmeterol works by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because salmeterol is a long-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist, which works by stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors on bronchial smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation. This helps in relaxation of the airways and improved breathing in asthma patients. Option A is incorrect because salmeterol does not affect histamine release. Option C is incorrect as salmeterol does not inhibit leukotriene receptors. Option D is incorrect as salmeterol does not block acetylcholine receptors.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is a potential side effect of corticosteroid therapy in the long term?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Osteoporosis. Corticosteroid therapy can lead to decreased bone density over time, resulting in osteoporosis. This occurs due to the suppression of bone formation and increased bone resorption. Hypotension (choice A) is not a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy; rather, it can cause fluid retention and hypertension. Tachycardia (choice C) is also not a typical side effect of corticosteroids; instead, they may cause bradycardia. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with corticosteroid therapy; in fact, corticosteroids can lead to hypokalemia due to potassium loss.
Question 4 of 5
A 65-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Metformin works primarily by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improving insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. Metformin helps improve insulin sensitivity by increasing the uptake of glucose by muscle and fat cells, reducing glucose production in the liver, and decreasing insulin resistance. This leads to better control of blood glucose levels in individuals with type 2 diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because metformin does not directly increase insulin secretion from the pancreas. Choice C is incorrect because metformin does not inhibit glucose absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect because although metformin may increase renal glucose excretion to some extent, its primary mechanism of action is improving insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues.
Question 5 of 5
A 55-year-old male with a history of hyperlipidemia is prescribed rosuvastatin. Rosuvastatin works by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver. Rosuvastatin is a statin medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for the production of cholesterol in the liver. By inhibiting this enzyme, rosuvastatin helps lower the levels of LDL cholesterol in the blood. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because rosuvastatin does not act by inhibiting cholesterol reabsorption in the intestines, increasing HDL cholesterol levels, or increasing the excretion of cholesterol in the bile.