A 70-year-old female with hypertension is prescribed bisoprolol. Bisoprolol works by:

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Question 1 of 5

A 70-year-old female with hypertension is prescribed bisoprolol. Bisoprolol works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart. Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker that specifically targets beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to reduced heart rate and blood pressure. This helps in managing hypertension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bisoprolol does not target beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the lungs, does not affect sodium excretion in the kidneys, and does not inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. The mechanism of action of bisoprolol primarily involves its selective blockade of beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, making choice A the correct answer.

Question 2 of 5

A 65-year-old female with chronic atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. Apixaban works by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting factor Xa. Apixaban is a factor Xa inhibitor, which prevents the formation of thrombin. Factor Xa is a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade that converts prothrombin to thrombin. By inhibiting factor Xa, apixaban effectively reduces blood clot formation. Thrombin is directly inhibited by other anticoagulants like dabigatran. Vitamin K antagonists (e.g. warfarin) block the action of vitamin K, and antiplatelet agents (e.g. aspirin) inhibit platelet aggregation but do not work by inhibiting factor Xa like apixaban.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed to manage chronic pain in patients with osteoarthritis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is commonly prescribed for managing chronic pain in osteoarthritis due to its analgesic properties. It is a non-opioid pain reliever with fewer side effects compared to opioids like morphine (A), which are typically reserved for severe pain. Methotrexate (C) is a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug used for rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Lisinopril (D) is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used for hypertension, not for pain management in osteoarthritis.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following drugs is used to treat hypertension by inhibiting the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, not an ACE inhibitor like Lisinopril. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that acts on the kidneys, not on the renin-angiotensin system. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing blood vessels, not by inhibiting the angiotensin-converting enzyme. Therefore, Lisinopril is the correct choice for treating hypertension by inhibiting the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

Question 5 of 5

A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. Alendronate works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. Alendronate is a bisphosphonate drug that works by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are responsible for breaking down bone tissue. By inhibiting osteoclast activity, alendronate helps to reduce bone resorption and increase bone density. This is particularly beneficial for patients with osteoporosis, as it helps to slow down bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate does not directly affect calcium absorption from the intestine. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate does not promote osteoblast activity, which is responsible for building new bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate does not increase parathyroid hormone levels; in fact, it can actually decrease parathyroid hormone levels by affecting calcium homeostasis.

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