A 70-year-old female with asthma is prescribed budesonide. Budesonide works by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reducing inflammation in the airways. Budesonide is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, making it an effective treatment for asthma. Inflammation in the airways is a key factor in asthma symptoms, and corticosteroids like budesonide help to decrease this inflammation, thereby improving breathing and reducing asthma symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because budesonide does not work by blocking leukotriene receptors, inhibiting histamine release, or relaxing bronchial smooth muscle. Instead, its main mechanism of action is through its anti-inflammatory properties.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver. Simvastatin is a statin medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase in the liver, which plays a key role in cholesterol synthesis. By inhibiting this enzyme, simvastatin reduces the production of cholesterol in the liver, leading to a decrease in LDL cholesterol levels in the bloodstream. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because simvastatin does not directly affect cholesterol absorption in the intestines, increase HDL cholesterol levels, or increase the excretion of cholesterol in the bile.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Efavirenz. Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) used in HIV/AIDS management by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme. It works by binding to the enzyme, preventing the conversion of RNA to DNA in the virus. Amoxicillin (B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, Clarithromycin (C) is also an antibiotic for bacterial infections, and Fluconazole (D) is an antifungal medication. These choices do not target the reverse transcriptase enzyme involved in HIV replication, making them incorrect for managing HIV/AIDS.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because tramadol primarily works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. This mechanism of action helps to modulate pain signals and increase pain tolerance. Choice A is incorrect because tramadol has weak affinity for opioid receptors. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis like NSAIDs. Choice D is incorrect as blocking sodium channels is the mechanism of action for local anesthetics, not tramadol.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Olanzapine. Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic that works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, reducing dopamine activity and alleviating symptoms of schizophrenia. Citalopram and Fluoxetine are both selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors used to treat depression and anxiety, not schizophrenia. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Blocking dopamine receptors is key in managing schizophrenia symptoms, making olanzapine the appropriate choice.