ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 69-year-old man with a history of squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx underwent treatment with surgical resection and postoperative radiation therapy. He currently has significant xerostomia. Which of the following would be the best course of treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best course of treatment for the 69-year-old man with significant xerostomia following treatment for squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is option D) Pilocarpine. Pilocarpine is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates saliva production, making it an effective treatment for xerostomia. Option A) Bethanechol is also a cholinergic agonist, but it is not as effective for xerostomia as pilocarpine. Carbachol (option B) is primarily used in the eye and is not a common treatment for xerostomia. Option C) suggesting oral liquid intake is not a targeted treatment for xerostomia and may not provide adequate relief for the patient's condition. In the context of pharmacology across the lifespan, understanding the appropriate use of medications like pilocarpine in managing side effects of cancer treatment is crucial. Educating healthcare providers about the mechanism of action and appropriate indications for medications can lead to improved patient outcomes and quality of life. It is essential to consider individual patient characteristics such as age, comorbidities, and treatment history when selecting the most suitable pharmacological interventions.
Question 2 of 5
A 65-year-old man with long-standing schizophrenia has been taking an antipsychotic agent since his diagnosis of schizophrenia at age 19 years. He has been in and out of psychiatric hospitals for most of his adult life. Long-term adverse effects of these agents may include which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a long-term adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of antipsychotic medications, especially in individuals with schizophrenia. This condition is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body, such as lip smacking, tongue protrusion, and choreiform movements. Option A) Hypertension is incorrect because it is not a common long-term adverse effect of antipsychotic medications; rather, it is more commonly associated with other factors like lifestyle, genetics, and comorbid conditions. Option B) Myocardial infarction is also incorrect in this context. While antipsychotic medications can have cardiovascular side effects, myocardial infarction is not a common long-term adverse effect of these medications. Option C) Poikilothermia is not a typical long-term adverse effect of antipsychotic medications. Poikilothermia refers to the inability to regulate body temperature, which is not a commonly reported side effect of antipsychotics. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential long-term adverse effects of antipsychotic medications, especially in individuals with chronic conditions like schizophrenia. Monitoring for and managing these side effects can improve the overall quality of care for patients with mental health disorders. Regular assessments and communication with patients about medication side effects are essential components of holistic care in pharmacology across the lifespan.
Question 3 of 5
A 62-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for follow-up. He has a history of an atrial arrhythmia. He takes multiple medications but does not know the names of them. He now complains of headache, dizziness, and tinnitus. Which one of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is D) Quinidine. Quinidine is known to have potential side effects of headache, dizziness, and tinnitus, which are the symptoms the patient is presenting with. Amiodarone (A) is less likely to cause these specific symptoms, as its side effects typically include pulmonary toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, and liver toxicity. Procainamide (B) is associated with lupus-like syndrome and gastrointestinal side effects, not the symptoms described. Propranolol (C) is a beta-blocker used for rate control in atrial arrhythmias and is unlikely to cause the specific symptoms mentioned. In an educational context, understanding the side effects of antiarrhythmic drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to effectively manage patients on these medications. It highlights the importance of patient education regarding medication names and potential side effects to facilitate early recognition and management of adverse reactions. This case underscores the significance of pharmacovigilance and the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring and assessing patients for drug-related adverse events.
Question 4 of 5
A 39-year-old woman with chronic migraine headaches manages her condition with ibuprofen 200 mg. Most days, she does well with 200 to 400 mg. Adverse reactions to this therapy include which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Gastrointestinal upset. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for pain relief, including migraines. Gastrointestinal upset is a common adverse effect of NSAIDs due to their tendency to irritate the stomach lining, leading to symptoms like stomach pain, heartburn, and even ulcers. Option B) Hives is less likely to be caused by ibuprofen in this case, as hives are more commonly associated with allergic reactions rather than typical side effects of NSAIDs like ibuprofen. Option C) Seizure disorder is not a known adverse reaction to ibuprofen at therapeutic doses. Seizures are not commonly associated with NSAIDs like ibuprofen unless used in very high doses or in individuals with specific risk factors. Option D) Teratogenicity refers to the potential of a substance to cause birth defects. While ibuprofen is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus, teratogenicity is not a typical adverse reaction in a non-pregnant adult taking ibuprofen for migraines. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the common adverse effects of medications like ibuprofen to monitor and manage patients effectively. Providing detailed information on potential adverse reactions helps in ensuring patient safety, optimizing treatment outcomes, and promoting effective pharmacological management across different patient populations.
Question 5 of 5
A 33-year-old woman patient needs to be anesthetized before a dilation and curettage for abnormal uterine bleeding. Her anesthesia is induced initially with an inhaled, nonflammable anesthetic that contains no halogenated carbons. Of the following, which agent best fits this description?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide, also known as laughing gas, is an inhaled, nonflammable anesthetic that does not contain halogenated carbons. It is commonly used for conscious sedation and in combination with other anesthetic agents during various medical procedures due to its rapid onset and offset of action. Option A) Enflurane is a halogenated carbon-based anesthetic, which does not fit the description provided in the question. Option B) Diethyl ether is a highly flammable anesthetic agent and is not commonly used in modern anesthesia practice due to safety concerns. Option C) Halothane is another halogenated carbon-based anesthetic, making it inconsistent with the description in the question. Educationally, it is essential for healthcare providers, especially those studying pharmacology or anesthesia, to understand the properties and characteristics of various anesthetic agents to ensure safe and effective patient care. Knowing the specific attributes of each agent, such as flammability and chemical composition, helps in selecting the most appropriate anesthetic for different clinical scenarios.