ATI RN
Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 68-year-old retired truck driver comes to your office for evaluation of swelling in his legs. He is a smoker and has been taking medications to control his hypertension for the past 25 years. You are concerned about his risk for peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following tests are appropriate to order to initially evaluate for this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is the appropriate test to initially evaluate for peripheral vascular disease in this case. ABI is a simple, non-invasive test that compares the blood pressure in the arms to the blood pressure in the legs. A lower ABI value indicates a higher likelihood of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Given the patient's presentation of leg swelling and risk factors like smoking and hypertension, ABI can help determine the presence and severity of PAD, guiding further management and treatment decisions.
Question 2 of 5
The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is calculated by dividing the systolic BP at the dorsalis pedis by the systolic BP at the brachial artery. Which of the following values would be consistent with mild peripheral arterial disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An ABI value less than 0.9 is indicative of mild peripheral arterial disease (PAD). In this case, an ABI of 0.85 falls below the 0.9 threshold, suggesting diminished blood flow to the lower extremities due to PAD. An ABI of 1.1 (Choice A) is actually elevated and not indicative of PAD. Values of 0.65 (Choice C) and 0.35 (Choice D) are significantly lower and would be consistent with moderate to severe PAD, rather than mild.
Question 3 of 5
A 49-year-old administrative assistant comes to your office for evaluation of dizziness. You elicit the information that the dizziness is a spinning sensation of sudden onset, worse with head position changes. The episodes last a few seconds and then go away, and they are accompanied by intense nausea. She has vomited one time. She denies tinnitus. You perform a physical examination of the head and neck and note that the patient's hearing is intact to Weber and Rinne and that there is nystagmus. Her gait is normal. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset spinning sensation triggered by head position changes, accompanied by nausea and vomiting without tinnitus, is characteristic of benign positional vertigo (BPV). BPV is caused by displaced otoconia (calcium crystals) within the semicircular canals of the inner ear. These crystals disrupt the normal flow of fluid in the inner ear, leading to false signals being sent to the brain about head movement. This results in brief episodes of vertigo triggered by specific head positions.
Question 4 of 5
You are examining a newborn and note that the right testicle is not in the scrotum. What should you do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When examining a newborn and noting that the right testicle is not in the scrotum, it is important to refer the newborn to a pediatric urologist for further evaluation and management. This condition could be a case of undescended testis (cryptorchidism), where the testicle fails to descend into the scrotum. Early intervention is crucial as the undescended testis may lead to complications such as infertility, testicular cancer, and inguinal hernia. Urology specialists can determine the best course of action to bring down the testis and ensure proper testicular development. Waiting or attempting manual descent without expertise could lead to complications, so it is best to involve a urologist for proper assessment and management.
Question 5 of 5
A 68-year-old retired truck driver comes to your office for evaluation of swelling in his legs. He is a smoker and has been taking medications to control his hypertension for the past 25 years. You are concerned about his risk for peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following tests are appropriate to order to initially evaluate for this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is the appropriate test to initially evaluate for peripheral vascular disease in this case. ABI is a simple, non-invasive test that compares the blood pressure in the arms to the blood pressure in the legs. A lower ABI value indicates a higher likelihood of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Given the patient's presentation of leg swelling and risk factors like smoking and hypertension, ABI can help determine the presence and severity of PAD, guiding further management and treatment decisions.
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