A 68-year-old mechanic presents to the emergency room for shortness of breath. You are concerned about a cardiac cause and measure his jugular venous pressure (JVP). It is elevated. Which one of the following conditions is a potential cause of elevated JVP?

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Question 1 of 9

A 68-year-old mechanic presents to the emergency room for shortness of breath. You are concerned about a cardiac cause and measure his jugular venous pressure (JVP). It is elevated. Which one of the following conditions is a potential cause of elevated JVP?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Constrictive pericarditis is a condition where the pericardium becomes thickened and rigid, impairing diastolic filling of the heart. This leads to an increase in venous pressure, including the jugular venous pressure (JVP). The elevated JVP in constrictive pericarditis is a result of impaired ventricular filling rather than forward failure seen in heart failure. Mitral stenosis can lead to an increased JVP due to elevated left atrial pressure, but constrictive pericarditis is a more common cause of elevated JVP in this scenario. Aortic aneurysm is not typically associated with elevated JVP.

Question 2 of 9

Josh is a 14-year-old boy who presents with a sore throat. On examination, you notice dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on his left side with a deep breath. What does this indicate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on the left side with a deep breath is suggestive of splenomegaly. However, this finding alone is not definitive for an enlarged spleen. The size of the spleen can vary, and further examination is required to confirm if the spleen is indeed enlarged. Therefore, Option B is the most appropriate choice as it indicates that the spleen is possibly enlarged, and close attention should be paid to further examination to confirm its status. Further workup, such as imaging studies or blood tests, may be necessary to evaluate the size and function of the spleen in this case.

Question 3 of 9

A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week history of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described, such as sneezing, itchy watery eyes, clear nasal discharge, ear pain, and nonproductive cough, are classic signs of allergic rhinitis, commonly known as seasonal allergies. Allergic rhinitis is an inflammatory response triggered by allergens in the environment such as pollen, dust mites, or pet dander. The immune system overreacts to these allergens, releasing histamine and other chemicals that cause the symptoms experienced by the patient. In this case, the most likely pathologic process underlying the symptoms is an allergic response rather than infection, inflammation, or vascular issues.

Question 4 of 9

A 55-year-old bookkeeper comes to your office for a routine visit. You note that on a previous visit for treatment of contact dermatitis, her blood pressure was elevated. She does not have prior elevated readings and her family history is negative for hypertension. You measure her blood pressure in your office today. Which of the following factors can result in a false high reading?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A tightly fitted blood pressure cuff can result in a false high reading by compressing the underlying artery too much, causing an inaccurate measurement. It is important to ensure that the blood pressure cuff is appropriately sized for the patient's arm to obtain an accurate reading. The other factors listed, such as the patient being seated quietly, measuring on a bare arm, and supporting the patient's arm at the correct level, all contribute to obtaining an accurate measurement of blood pressure.

Question 5 of 9

Marion presents to your office with back pain associated with constipation and urinary retention. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Marion's presentation of back pain associated with constipation and urinary retention is concerning for cauda equina syndrome. Cauda equina syndrome is a rare but serious condition caused by the compression of the bundle of nerves at the bottom of the spinal cord, known as the cauda equina. This compression can result in a variety of symptoms, including back pain, sciatica, changes in bowel and bladder function (such as constipation and urinary retention), as well as lower extremity weakness or numbness.

Question 6 of 9

A 73-year-old nurse comes to your office for evaluation of new onset of tremors. She is not on any medications and does not take herbs or supplements. She has no chronic medical conditions. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She walks into the examination room with slow movements and shuffling steps. She has decreased facial mobility and a blunt expression, without any changes in hair distribution on her face. Based on this description, what is the most likely reason for the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of new onset tremors, slow movements with shuffling steps (bradykinesia), decreased facial mobility, and blunt expression are characteristic features of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement, typically presenting with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. The presence of these symptoms in this patient, along with the absence of any other medical conditions or medication use, points toward a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Other conditions like Cushing's syndrome, nephrotic syndrome, and myxedema are unlikely based on the patient's clinical presentation.

Question 7 of 9

A 50-year-old body builder is upset by a letter of denial from his life insurance company. He is very lean but has gained 2 pounds over the past 6 months. You personally performed his health assessment and found no problems whatsoever. He says he is classified as "high risk" because of obesity. What should you do next?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Since the life insurance company is classifying the body builder as "high risk" due to obesity, it is important to assess whether his weight gain is primarily fat accumulation around the waist. Measuring his waist circumference can provide valuable information about the distribution of body fat. Abdominal obesity, indicated by an increased waist measurement, is a significant risk factor for health issues such as heart disease, diabetes, and metabolic syndrome. By measuring his waist, you can determine if his weight gain is indeed a cause for concern in terms of health risks, rather than just considering the overall weight gain. This information can help you provide more targeted advice on how to address any potential health concerns related to the weight gain.

Question 8 of 9

Very sensitive methods for detecting hearing loss include which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Audiometric testing is a very sensitive method for detecting hearing loss. It involves a series of tests that measure a person's ability to hear sounds at various frequencies and volumes. These tests can detect even subtle changes in hearing ability and provide detailed information on the type and degree of hearing loss. The whisper test and finger rub test are basic screening tests and are not as sensitive or comprehensive as audiometric testing. The tuning fork test is also used in evaluating hearing loss, but it is not as accurate or sensitive as audiometric testing. Overall, audiometric testing is considered the gold standard for diagnosing hearing loss due to its high sensitivity and ability to provide detailed information on the individual's hearing capabilities.

Question 9 of 9

Chris is a 20-year-old college student who has had abdominal pain for 3 days. It started at his umbilicus and was associated with nausea and vomiting. He was unable to find a comfortable position. Yesterday, the pain became more severe and constant. Now, he hesitates to walk, because any motion makes the pain much worse. It is localized just medial and inferior to his iliac crest on the right. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation is highly suggestive of appendicitis, especially given the migration of pain from the periumbilical region to the right lower quadrant (just medial and inferior to the iliac crest). The worsening of pain with motion, along with associated symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and fever, are typical features of appendicitis. The classic presentation of appendicitis is pain starting around the umbilicus (due to visceral innervation) and then shifting to the right lower quadrant (due to irritation of the parietal peritoneum). Surgical intervention is usually required promptly to prevent complications like perforation, which can lead to peritonitis and sepsis.

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