A 68-year-old man with a 6-month history of progressive pill-rolling tremors of the hands, urinary incontinence, and cogwheel rigidity presents to his primary care physician for evaluation. Physical examination confirms the earlier findings. Which of the following is a therapeutic goal for this condition?

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Pharmacology of CNS Drugs Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 68-year-old man with a 6-month history of progressive pill-rolling tremors of the hands, urinary incontinence, and cogwheel rigidity presents to his primary care physician for evaluation. Physical examination confirms the earlier findings. Which of the following is a therapeutic goal for this condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 2 of 5

A 28-year-old woman secretary complains of fatigue that increases throughout the day. At the end of her workday, she says her eyes feel “heavy” and “droopy,” although she does not feel particularly tired. Pyridostigmine is prescribed to treat her myasthenia gravis. How does pyridostigmine work?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 3 of 5

A 27-year-old man is prescribed with an antidepressant for seasonal affective disorder. This particular antidepressant may also help him quit smoking. Which of the following antidepressants is he likely taking?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following is a pure opioid antagonist:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A pure opioid antagonist binds opioid receptors (primarily mu) without activating them, reversing agonist effects. Naloxone (choice C) is the gold standard, used in opioid overdose to rapidly reverse respiratory depression and sedation by competitively blocking receptors. Methadone (choice A) is a full mu agonist, used for pain and addiction maintenance, not antagonism. Nalbuphine (choice B) is a mixed agonist-antagonist, with kappa agonism and mu antagonism, not pure. Buprenorphine (choice D) is a partial mu agonist with high affinity, used in addiction treatment, not a pure antagonist. Naloxone's pure antagonistic action distinguishes it, making it essential in emergencies to counteract opioid toxicity, unlike mixed or agonist drugs.

Question 5 of 5

The common mechanism of action of NSAIDs is inhibition of the following enzyme:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen, aspirin) inhibit cyclo-oxygenase (COX) enzymes (choice B), reducing prostaglandin synthesis, which mediates inflammation, pain, and fever. Cholinesterase (choice A) is targeted by anticholinesterases, not NSAIDs. Lipo-oxygenase (choice C) produces leukotrienes, unaffected by most NSAIDs. Phosphodiesterase (choice D) relates to cAMP, irrelevant here. COX inhibition is the unifying mechanism, critical for understanding NSAID effects and side effects like GI irritation.

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