Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

jarvis physical assessment test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 67-year-old woman with a history of A-fib and an ejection fraction of 48% has had normal digoxin levels. Which can cause a decrease in digoxin level?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Regular use of antacids can decrease the absorption of digoxin, potentially lowering its levels.

Question 2 of 5

A patient calls the nurse practitioner and states that he missed his morning daily dose of warfarin, 5 mg, yesterday and today. The nurse practitioner instructs the patient to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient should resume the usual warfarin dose and avoid doubling it.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following findings could indicate a need for further evaluation of the cardiac patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: LDL levels over 160 mg/dl warrant further evaluation for cardiovascular risk.

Question 4 of 5

Several years later, Mr. Hunter, who is now 75 years old, seeks additional intervention for his urinary symptoms that have progressed further. He now experiences slow urinary stream, hesitancy, straining, and a feeling of incomplete emptying in addition to the previous urinary urgency and frequency. At times, he has noted blood in his urine. He has had five urinary tract infections (UTIs) in the past 2 years. His current IPSS is 24, with a bother score of 5 indicating severe voiding symptoms with high impact on his quality of life. Mr. Hunter’s updated medical history includes hypertension, coronary artery disease, benign prostatic hyperplasia, cataract surgery 4 years ago, and two falls within the past year while rushing to the bathroom during the night. Current medications are aspirin, metoprolol, finasteride, and tamsulosin. Physical examination reveals an enlarged, nontender prostate, about 50 g in size without discrete nodules. Upon further evaluation, the intermittent hematuria is attributed to BPH. Postvoid residual volume is 110 mL. Uroflowmetry reveals urinary flow rate of 12 mL/s. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Given the severity of his symptoms and the failure of medical therapy, surgical resection of the prostate is the best option.

Question 5 of 5

A 72-year-old woman reports vaginal dryness that interferes with coitus. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Medications are glyburide, chlorthalidone, and acetaminophen. What would be your first step in therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Topical vaginal lubricants can help alleviate vaginal dryness and improve sexual function.

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