ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 67-year-old woman experienced the death of her husband from a sudden myocardial infarction 5 weeks ago. The nurse recognizes that the woman will be going through the process of mourning for an extended period of time. What processes of mourning will allow the woman to accommodate the loss in a healthy way? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reinvesting in new relationships at the appropriate time. This process of mourning involves the woman gradually shifting her focus from the past relationship with her husband to forming new relationships or reinvesting in existing ones. This is crucial for her to adapt to life without her husband and move forward in a healthy manner. A: Reiterating her anger at her husband's care team is not a healthy process as it can lead to prolonged resentment and hinder the mourning process. C: Reminiscing about the relationship she had with her husband is a natural part of mourning but solely focusing on reminiscing may not allow her to fully adapt to life without her husband. D: Relinquishing old attachments to her husband at the appropriate time is important, but it is only one aspect of the mourning process. It is not the sole process necessary for healthy mourning. E: Renewing her lifelong commitment to her husband is not a healthy process as it prevents her from accepting the loss and
Question 2 of 9
A 30-year-old patient has come to the clinic for her yearly examination. The patient asks the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state when describing risk factors for ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should inform the patient that most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation. This is the correct answer because the exact cause of ovarian cancer is not well understood, and the majority of cases are not linked to specific risk factors. Step 2: Choice A is incorrect because the use of oral contraceptives actually decreases the risk of ovarian cancer. Step 3: Choice B is incorrect because tobacco use is not a major risk factor for ovarian cancer. It is primarily associated with lung and other types of cancer. Step 4: Choice D is incorrect because while a family history of ovarian cancer can increase the risk, the majority of women diagnosed with ovarian cancer do not have a family history of the disease.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents at the ED after receiving a chemical burn to the eye. What would be the nurses initial intervention for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a chemical burn to the eye is to generously flush the affected eye with normal saline or water. Flushing helps to remove the chemical from the eye, preventing further damage. Antibiotic solution (choice A) is not the first intervention as the priority is to remove the chemical. Applying a patch (choice C) can trap the chemical against the eye, worsening the injury. Applying direct pressure (choice D) is not appropriate and can cause additional harm. Flushing with normal saline or water is the most effective and safest initial intervention to minimize damage from a chemical burn to the eye.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had diarrhea for the past week. Which additional assessment finding will the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased skin turgor. Diarrhea leads to fluid loss, causing dehydration and decreased skin turgor. This indicates the patient's hydration status. A: Distended abdomen is more common in conditions like bowel obstruction, not necessarily in diarrhea. C: Increased energy levels are unlikely due to the patient's weakened state from dehydration. D: Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with dehydration.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has returned to the floor from the PACU after undergoing a suprapubic prostatectomy. The nurse notes significant urine leakage around the suprapubic tube. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inform the urologist of this finding. In this scenario, significant urine leakage around the suprapubic tube indicates a potential issue with the tube placement or functioning. It is crucial to involve the urologist, who is the specialist managing the patient's urological interventions, to assess and address the cause of the leakage promptly. This action ensures timely and appropriate intervention to prevent complications such as infection or further damage. Choice A is incorrect because simply cleansing the skin does not address the underlying issue of urine leakage. Choice C is incorrect and potentially harmful as removing the suprapubic tube without professional assessment can lead to serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as administering antispasmodic drugs may not be the appropriate action without further evaluation by the urologist.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has undergone diagnostic testing and has been diagnosed with otosclerosis? What ear structure is primarily affected by this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stapes. Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by abnormal bone growth in the middle ear, causing the stapes bone to become fixed in place. This results in hearing loss due to the inability of the stapes to transmit sound vibrations to the inner ear. The malleus (choice A), incus (choice C), and tympanic membrane (choice D) are not primarily affected by otosclerosis. The malleus and incus are located in the middle ear but are not typically affected by otosclerosis. The tympanic membrane is part of the outer ear and is not directly involved in otosclerosis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient got a sliver of glass in his eye when a glass container at work fell and shattered. The glass had to be surgically removed and the patient is about to be discharged home. The patient asks the nurse for a topical anesthetic for the pain in his eye. What should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Overuse of topical anesthetics can soften the cornea and damage the eye. Topical anesthetics numb the eye, masking pain and potentially leading to overuse. This can prevent the patient from recognizing potential issues like infection or further injury. Additionally, prolonged use can interfere with the cornea's ability to heal properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risks associated with using topical anesthetics in the eye. Option B focuses on peripheral vision loss, which is not a direct consequence of using topical anesthetics. Choice C mentions controlled substances, which is not relevant to the situation. Option D acknowledges the patient's request but does not educate the patient on the potential harm of overusing topical anesthetics.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.
Question 9 of 9
The clinic nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a pregnant patient at risk for preeclampsia. Which clinical sign would not present as a symptom of preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Glucosuria. Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. Glucosuria is not a typical symptom of preeclampsia. Glucosuria is more commonly associated with gestational diabetes, which is a separate condition from preeclampsia. Therefore, in a pregnant patient at risk for preeclampsia, the presence of glucosuria would not be indicative of preeclampsia. The other choices, edema, proteinuria, and hypertension, are all common clinical signs seen in patients with preeclampsia.