A 67-year-old male client had some serum tests performed during his annual examination. The nurse reviews his results, as follows: testosterone: 680 ng/dL; prostate-specific antigen: 10 ng/mL; prolactin: 5 ng/mL. What action by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prepare the client for further diagnostic testing. A testosterone level of 680 ng/dL is high for a 67-year-old male, which could indicate an underlying medical condition. A prostate-specific antigen level of 10 ng/mL is elevated and could suggest prostate issues. Prolactin level of 5 ng/mL is within normal range but still needs further evaluation due to the other abnormal results. Therefore, preparing the client for further diagnostic testing is crucial to investigate the potential underlying health concerns. Incorrect options: A: Assess for possible galactorrhea with breast discharge - Irrelevant as galactorrhea is not indicated by the given results. B: Note the possibility of a testicular tumor - Testosterone level elevation is more indicative of non-testicular issues. C: Communicate to the provider that results were normal - Results are not normal, warranting further evaluation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Define sexual reproduction as the process involving the fusion of gametes from two parents. Step 2: Hermaphroditism refers to an organism having both male and female reproductive organs for self-fertilization. Step 3: In hermaphroditism, there is still a fusion of gametes, fulfilling the criteria of sexual reproduction. Step 4: Fragmentation, parthenogenesis, and budding are forms of asexual reproduction, not involving the fusion of gametes. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is D (Hermaphroditism) as it aligns with the definition and process of sexual reproduction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Internal thoracic artery. The internal thoracic artery is a major branch of the subclavian artery and supplies the breast tissue. It gives rise to the perforating branches that supply the breast. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because the thoracoaromial artery primarily supplies the upper limb, the superior epigastric artery supplies the anterior abdominal wall, and the common carotid artery supplies the head and neck, but not the breast tissue. Therefore, based on the anatomical knowledge of arterial supply, the internal thoracic artery is the correct choice for the arterial supply of the breast.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because excessive exercise can lead to decreased body fat, which in turn disrupts hormone levels causing irregular periods. Choice A is inappropriate as it doesn't address the underlying issue. Choices C and D are incorrect as they refer to different conditions (bulimia and anorexia) not related to the client's concern.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: epididymis. Sperm cells attain fertilization competence and motility in the epididymis. Here's the rationale: 1. Sperm cells are produced in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. 2. They then move to the epididymis for maturation, where they gain motility and the ability to fertilize an egg. 3. The epididymis provides the ideal environment for sperm to undergo final maturation processes. 4. The rete testis is a network of tubules where sperm are transported from the seminiferous tubules, not where they gain fertilization competence. 5. The vas deferens is a duct that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra, not where sperm attain fertilization competence.