A 67-year-old male client had serum laboratory tests performed during his annual examination. The nurse reviews his results, as

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should communicate that the results were normal because the specific antigen and prolactin levels fall within the normal range for a 67-year-old male. Specific antigen levels around 10 ng/mL are typical for this age group, and prolactin levels of 5 ng/mL are also within normal limits. Option A is not necessary as the results are normal. Option B is incorrect as galactorrhea is not indicated by the lab results. Option C is also incorrect as there is no indication of a testicular tumor based on the lab values. Therefore, the best course of action is to inform the client that the results are normal.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: dihydrotestosterone. Testosterone is converted to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in the prostate by the enzyme 5-alpha reductase. DHT is a more potent androgen that plays a crucial role in prostate growth and development. Choice A (cholesterol) is incorrect as it is not a product of testosterone conversion in the prostate. Choice B (estrogen) is incorrect as testosterone is not directly converted to estrogen in the prostate. Choice C (progesterone) is incorrect as progesterone is not the main product of testosterone conversion in the prostate.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: fundus. The fundus is the superior portion of the uterus, located above the entry point of the fallopian tubes. It is the part of the uterus where the fertilized egg implants and grows during pregnancy. The body of the uterus (choice A) is the main central portion, the cervix (choice B) is the lower narrow part that connects to the vagina, and the infundibulum (choice D) is a part of the fallopian tube, not the uterus. Thus, the fundus is the correct choice as it specifically refers to the superior portion of the uterus.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: LH levels. Ovulation is triggered by a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH) levels, which causes the release of the mature egg from the ovary. LH surge is a key event in the menstrual cycle that leads to ovulation. Explanation: 1. LH surge stimulates the release of the egg from the dominant follicle in the ovary. 2. This surge typically occurs around the middle of the menstrual cycle. 3. Ovulation occurs within 24-36 hours after the LH surge. 4. FSH (Choice C) is involved in follicle development but does not directly cause ovulation. 5. Estrogen (Choice D) plays a role in the menstrual cycle but does not directly trigger ovulation. 6. Blood pressure (Choice A) is not involved in the process of ovulation. Summary: LH levels are the primary factor that causes ovulation by triggering the release of the egg from the ovary

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: placenta; mimics LH. Rationale: 1. HCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. 2. HCG mimics the action of LH (Luteinizing Hormone) to support the corpus luteum in producing progesterone. 3. This helps maintain the uterine lining and supports the pregnancy. Summary: A: Incorrect - Uterus does not produce HCG, and it does not cause labor. B: Incorrect - Ovary does not produce HCG, and it does not stimulate FSH. C: Incorrect - Placenta produces HCG, but it does not inhibit LH; instead, it mimics LH's actions.