A 65-year-old patient with fever and a productive cough had a sputum sample revealing Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacteria. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Klebsiella pneumoniae. This bacterium is commonly associated with pneumonia in elderly patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium that frequently causes pneumonia in individuals with underlying health conditions. It is known for its ability to produce a distinctive mucoid capsule. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (B) is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. Escherichia coli (C) is a common cause of urinary tract infections but is less likely in this case due to the symptoms and sputum sample results. Haemophilus influenzae (D) is another common respiratory pathogen, but in this scenario, Klebsiella pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent based on the patient's age, symptoms, and the characteristics of the bacteria described in the sputum sample.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter. Helicobacter pylori is the main causative agent of peptic ulcer disease and is characterized by its gram-negative arcuate bent shape and positive urease activity. Helicobacter pylori specifically colonizes the stomach mucosa and is associated with various gastrointestinal disorders. Spirochetes (choice B), spirilla (choice C), and Leptospira (choice D) are not typically associated with peptic ulcer disease or stomach mucosa infections, making them incorrect choices in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Smooth S colonies. Bacteria with long O-specific chains are known as smooth strains, and when cultured on solid growth media, they form smooth colonies due to the presence of the O antigen. This gives them a glossy appearance. Rough R colonies (Choice B) lack O antigen and appear rough. Mucoid -M colonies (Choice C) are associated with capsules, not O-specific chains. H colonies (Choice D) are not relevant to the O-specific chains. Smooth S colonies are the characteristic phenotype of bacteria with long O-specific chains when cultured on solid media.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the treatment for Anthrax involves using antibiotics such as penicillins, tetracyclines, and macrolides to target the bacteria. Anti-anthrax gamma-globulins and immune-serum are used to provide passive immunity, but they are not the primary treatment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all the necessary components for treating Anthrax. Overall, using a combination of antibiotics and immune-based treatments like gamma-globulins and immune-serum provides a comprehensive approach to managing Anthrax infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. Vibrio cholerae is the causative agent of cholera, which presents with severe watery diarrhea leading to dehydration. The characteristic comma-shaped (curved rod) appearance of Gram-negative bacteria is typical of Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium produces the cholera toxin, leading to the excessive secretion of fluid into the intestines. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever with symptoms like sustained fever, not watery diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae causes bloody diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Escherichia coli can cause various types of infections, but typically not severe watery diarrhea like cholera.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Negri bodies are not associated with measles but with rabies. Step 1: Measles is a childhood infection with a rash (A). Step 2: Koplik spots are small white spots on a red base found inside the mouth and are characteristic of measles (B). Step 3: Negri bodies are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected with rabies virus, not measles (C). Step 4: Prophylaxis for measles is through the MMR vaccine, which is a live attenuated vaccine (D). Therefore, choice C is incorrect as it does not pertain to measles.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The term bacilli refers to rod-shaped bacteria, typically found in the Gram-positive group. Spore-forming bacteria, such as Bacillus and Clostridium, are characterized by their rod shape. Choice A is incorrect as the color in Gram staining does not define bacilli. Choice C is incorrect as peptidoglycan content does not determine the classification of bacilli. Choice D is incorrect as bacilli do have a specific characteristic. Therefore, the correct answer is B due to the shape and characteristic of spore-forming bacteria.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above," because all three bacteria listed (Vibrio cholerae, Clostridium difficile, Escherichia coli) produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to severe diarrhea. Clostridium difficile produces toxins causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Escherichia coli can produce toxins such as Shiga toxin causing severe gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, all the options listed are correct in producing toxins that can result in severe gastrointestinal illness.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the centromeres. Prophase is the phase where chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Metaphase is when chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Telophase is when the nuclear envelope reforms and chromosomes decondense. Therefore, anaphase is the correct phase for chromatid separation.