A 65-year-old patient with fever and a productive cough had a sputum sample revealing Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacteria. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Klebsiella pneumoniae. This bacterium is commonly associated with pneumonia in elderly patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium that frequently causes pneumonia in individuals with underlying health conditions. It is known for its ability to produce a distinctive mucoid capsule. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (B) is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. Escherichia coli (C) is a common cause of urinary tract infections but is less likely in this case due to the symptoms and sputum sample results. Haemophilus influenzae (D) is another common respiratory pathogen, but in this scenario, Klebsiella pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent based on the patient's age, symptoms, and the characteristics of the bacteria described in the sputum sample.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that thrive in high salt environments. They have adapted to survive and grow in areas with high salt concentrations. This preference for high salt levels is what distinguishes halophiles from other types of bacteria. A: Calciphiles are bacteria that prefer high levels of calcium. C: Osmophiles are bacteria that thrive in environments with high sugar concentrations. D: Mesophiles are bacteria that prefer moderate temperature ranges for growth. In summary, the correct term for bacteria that prefer high levels of salt in their growing environment is halophiles, making choices A, C, and D incorrect in this context.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The term bacilli refers to rod-shaped bacteria, typically found in the Gram-positive group. Spore-forming bacteria, such as Bacillus and Clostridium, are characterized by their rod shape. Choice A is incorrect as the color in Gram staining does not define bacilli. Choice C is incorrect as peptidoglycan content does not determine the classification of bacilli. Choice D is incorrect as bacilli do have a specific characteristic. Therefore, the correct answer is B due to the shape and characteristic of spore-forming bacteria.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunocomplex. In this case, the patient's symptoms of fever, joint pains, rash, and itch along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia indicate a serum sickness reaction. This is a type III hypersensitivity reaction where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. The symptoms typically occur 1-2 weeks after exposure to the antigen. Anaphylactic reaction (choice A) is immediate and involves IgE antibodies. Cytotoxic reaction (choice B) involves destruction of cells by antibodies. Delayed hypersensitivity (choice C) usually takes 48-72 hours to develop and involves T-cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the symptoms and timeline of a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The presence of Gram-positive rods in chains with central spores on the Gram stain indicates Bacillus anthracis. This bacterium is known to cause severe pneumonia. Clostridium tetani does not typically cause pneumonia but rather tetanus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive cocci, not rods. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly associated with pneumonia, but it does not form central spores.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, proportion 4:1. Gram (+) bacteria have a higher ratio of MG-ribonucleate to Mg. deoxyribonucleate because ribosomal RNA is more abundant in actively growing bacterial cells. This higher proportion of MG-ribonucleate to Mg. deoxyribonucleate is essential for protein synthesis and growth. The other choices are incorrect because they do not reflect the higher ratio of ribosomal RNA to DNA in Gram (+) bacteria, which is crucial for their metabolic activities and cellular functions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Arenaviridae family includes viruses with a segmented genome. 2. Lassa virus has a segmented genome, placing it in the Arenaviridae family. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus belongs to the Nairoviridae family, not Arenaviridae. 4. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family, not Arenaviridae. 5. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family, not Arenaviridae. Summary: A: Lassa virus is correct because it has a segmented genome, characteristic of Arenaviridae. B, C, D: Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus, Rabies virus, and Epstein-Barr virus belong to different virus families, not Arenaviridae.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium produces the botulinum neurotoxin, which causes paralysis by blocking the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions. Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, not paralysis. Escherichia coli is associated with gastrointestinal infections, not paralysis. Staphylococcus aureus produces enterotoxins causing food poisoning, not paralysis. Therefore, Clostridium botulinum is the correct choice based on its well-known association with paralysis due to botulinum neurotoxin production.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus vulgaris. Non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods that produce gas in a nutrient broth are characteristic of Proteus species. Proteus vulgaris is known for its swarming motility and ability to produce hydrogen sulfide gas. Salmonella typhi and Shigella dysenteriae are Enterobacteriaceae that do not produce gas in a nutrient broth. Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting bacterium and would not be expected to produce gas in a nutrient broth.