A 65-year-old man who is an avid golfer has intermittent angina when he plays golf particularly in cold weather. His primary care physician places him on sublingual nitroglycerine to be taken at the onset of symptoms. This patient must be warned of which of the following side effects?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Schizophrenia spectrum disorder. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excessive dopamine activity in certain areas of the brain can lead to symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, which are characteristic of schizophrenia. This neurotransmitter imbalance is often targeted by antipsychotic medications to help manage symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not primarily associated with dopamine dysregulation in the same way as schizophrenia. Major depressive disorder is more closely linked to serotonin and norepinephrine imbalances, while body dysmorphic disorder is associated with distorted body image perceptions. Parkinson's disease involves dopamine depletion in the brain's motor control areas, not the same pathway as seen in schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - Temperature of 104°F (40°C). This finding indicates a high fever, which could be a sign of infection or serious illness requiring immediate attention. Fever can lead to complications if not addressed promptly. A: Respirations of 22 beats/minute are within normal range. B: Weight gain of 8 pounds in 2 months could be concerning but does not pose an immediate threat. D: Excessive salivation may indicate an issue, but it is not as urgent as a high fever. Prioritizing assessment based on the severity of the condition is crucial for timely intervention and optimal patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should educate the patient on orthostatic hypotension, a common side effect of tricyclic antidepressants that causes dizziness upon standing. By advising the patient to increase fluid intake and change positions slowly, the nurse is promoting safety and providing a practical solution to manage the side effect. This response addresses the patient's concern effectively and empowers them to take control of their symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's symptoms as something to get used to does not address the potential risks of orthostatic hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as it minimizes the patient's discomfort and may invalidate their concerns. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the patient's symptoms by attributing them solely to negative thinking, rather than acknowledging the physiological effects of the medication.