A 65-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Metformin works primarily by:

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Question 1 of 5

A 65-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Metformin works primarily by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improving insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. Metformin helps improve insulin sensitivity by increasing the uptake of glucose by muscle and fat cells, reducing glucose production in the liver, and decreasing insulin resistance. This leads to better control of blood glucose levels in individuals with type 2 diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because metformin does not directly increase insulin secretion from the pancreas. Choice C is incorrect because metformin does not inhibit glucose absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect because although metformin may increase renal glucose excretion to some extent, its primary mechanism of action is improving insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of statin drugs?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain. Statin drugs are known to cause myopathy, which can manifest as muscle pain, weakness, or tenderness. This adverse effect is due to statins affecting muscle cells and potentially leading to muscle inflammation or damage. Headache (B), weight gain (C), and coughing (D) are not common adverse effects associated with statin drugs. Muscle pain is a well-documented and frequently reported side effect, making it the correct choice in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of opioid medications?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation. Opioids commonly cause constipation due to their effect on the gastrointestinal tract, slowing down gut motility. This is a well-documented adverse effect of opioid medications. Hypotension (B), weight loss (C), and tachycardia (D) are not common adverse effects of opioids. Hypotension is more associated with vasodilator medications, weight loss is not typically seen with opioids, and tachycardia is more likely to be caused by stimulant medications.

Question 4 of 5

A 55-year-old female with osteoarthritis is prescribed celecoxib. Celecoxib works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting COX-2 enzymes selectively. Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor, which means it specifically targets the cyclooxygenase-2 enzyme responsible for inflammation and pain without affecting COX-1 enzymes that protect the stomach lining. This selective inhibition reduces inflammation and pain while minimizing the risk of gastrointestinal side effects associated with non-selective NSAIDs. Choice B is incorrect because celecoxib does not inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes. Choice C is incorrect because celecoxib does not increase prostaglandin synthesis; it actually reduces it by inhibiting COX-2. Choice D is incorrect because celecoxib does not block sodium channels in peripheral nerves; its mechanism of action is through selective COX-2 inhibition.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following medications is most commonly used for the treatment of opioid addiction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Methadone. Methadone is a long-acting opioid agonist that helps reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings in individuals with opioid addiction. It has been widely used for decades in medication-assisted treatment programs. Naltrexone (B) is an opioid antagonist that is used for relapse prevention, not as a first-line treatment. Naloxone (C) is an opioid antagonist used for emergency overdose reversal. Suboxone (D) is a combination of buprenorphine (a partial opioid agonist) and naloxone, commonly used for opioid addiction treatment, but methadone is more commonly used.

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