A 65-year-old male with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. Amlodipine works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that inhibits the influx of calcium ions into vascular smooth muscle cells, leading to vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance. This ultimately results in reduced blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine does not affect norepinephrine reuptake, stimulate beta-1 adrenergic receptors, nor increase sodium excretion in the kidneys. These mechanisms are associated with other classes of antihypertensive medications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Hydrocodone is an opioid analgesic. 2. Opioid analgesics work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain. 3. By binding to these receptors, hydrocodone modulates pain perception and response. 4. This mechanism of action is how hydrocodone alleviates pain. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine - This describes the mechanism of action for antidepressants, not opioids like hydrocodone. C: Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis - This is the mechanism of action for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not opioids. D: Blocking sodium channels in peripheral nerves - This is a mechanism seen with local anesthetics, not opioids.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Alprazolam, Lorazepam, and Diazepam are all benzodiazepines that enhance the effects of GABA, a neurotransmitter that inhibits brain activity, leading to reduced anxiety and panic. These medications work by binding to GABA receptors and increasing the inhibitory actions of GABA. Therefore, all three medications are commonly prescribed to treat anxiety and panic disorders. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because each of these medications individually is commonly prescribed for anxiety and panic disorders by enhancing GABA effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reducing inflammation in the airways. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, which helps to control asthma symptoms. Corticosteroids like fluticasone target the underlying inflammation in asthma, leading to decreased airway swelling and mucus production. This helps to improve airflow and reduce asthma symptoms over time. Choice A is incorrect as histamine release inhibition is typically targeted by antihistamines, not corticosteroids like fluticasone. Choice B is incorrect because leukotriene receptor blockers target a different pathway in asthma treatment. Choice D is incorrect as bronchodilation, or relaxing bronchial smooth muscle, is typically achieved by bronchodilator medications like beta-agonists, not corticosteroids.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fexofenadine. It is a second-generation antihistamine that helps reduce symptoms of allergic rhinitis by blocking the action of histamine. Histamine is released during an allergic reaction, causing symptoms like sneezing, itching, and runny nose. Ibuprofen (B) is a pain reliever and anti-inflammatory drug, not typically used for allergic rhinitis. Loratadine (C) is another second-generation antihistamine, also used to treat allergic rhinitis. Paracetamol (D) is a pain reliever and fever reducer, not specifically used for allergic rhinitis symptoms.