ATI RN
Safety Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 65-year-old male with chronic pain is prescribed tramadol. The mechanism of action of tramadol is primarily:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. Tramadol is a centrally acting opioid analgesic that primarily works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. This mechanism helps to increase the levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain, leading to pain relief. Choice B is incorrect because tramadol is not a direct opioid agonist. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does not inhibit acetylcholine. Choice D is incorrect as tramadol does not primarily inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following medications is most commonly used for the treatment of osteoarthritis pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Celecoxib. Celecoxib is commonly used for osteoarthritis pain as it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps reduce inflammation and pain. It specifically targets the COX-2 enzyme, which is involved in the inflammatory process in osteoarthritis. Methotrexate (A) is used for rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Acetaminophen (B) is a mild pain reliever and is commonly used for osteoarthritis pain, but not as frequently as NSAIDs like celecoxib. Prednisone (D) is a corticosteroid that may be used for short-term relief of osteoarthritis symptoms but is not typically the first-line treatment due to potential side effects.
Question 3 of 5
Which condition is a contraindication for the use of albuterol inhalation therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that can potentially increase blood pressure. In patients with hypertension, this can lead to further elevation of blood pressure and potentially worsen the condition. Therefore, hypertension is a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy. C: Hypotension is not a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy. D: Chronic bronchitis is not a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The mechanism of action of hydrochlorothiazide involves:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic. Step 2: Thiazide diuretics work by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. Step 3: By blocking sodium reabsorption, hydrochlorothiazide increases water excretion, reducing blood volume and lowering blood pressure. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. Summary: - Option B (Blocking calcium channels) is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide does not affect calcium channels. - Option C (Increasing the excretion of potassium) is incorrect as thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion. - Option D (Relaxing vascular smooth muscle) is incorrect as this is not the primary mechanism of action of hydrochlorothiazide.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of beta-blockers in managing heart failure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Beta-blockers block the effects of adrenaline on beta receptors in the heart. Step 2: Adrenaline (epinephrine) binds to beta receptors in the heart, leading to increased heart rate and contractility. Step 3: By blocking beta receptors, beta-blockers reduce heart rate and contractility. Step 4: This reduces the workload on the heart, improves efficiency, and helps in managing heart failure. Summary: A: Incorrect. Beta-blockers actually decrease heart rate and contractility. B: Incorrect. Beta-blockers primarily affect heart function, not preload and afterload. D: Incorrect. Beta-blockers do not directly increase cardiac output; they improve heart function by reducing workload.