ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 65-year-old male has reported a crusty nodule behind the pinna. Over the past 6 months, the nodule has been bleeding intermittently and has not healed. On physical assessment, the nurse finds an ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base. The preliminary analysis in this situation would be that this:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the characteristics described (bleeding, not healing, ulcerated, indurated base) are indicative of a potential carcinoma, such as squamous cell carcinoma. These features raise concerns about malignancy and warrant immediate referral for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a benign sebaceous cyst (A) typically presents as a smooth, non-ulcerated mass, Darwin's tubercle (B) is a normal anatomical variation behind the ear and not associated with bleeding or ulceration, and a tophus (D) is a deposit of uric acid crystals seen in gout and would not present in this manner.
Question 2 of 9
A patient's medical record describes a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination, the nurse would expect to find:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: lesions that run together. Confluent lesions refer to merging or blending of individual lesions to form a larger lesion. This indicates a continuous area of involvement on the skin. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe confluent lesions as they refer to different patterns of lesion distribution such as annular, linear, or grouped. The key to identifying confluent lesions is the concept of merging or running together, which is best represented by choice A.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is testing the hearing of a 78-year-old man. Which of the following age-related hearing changes should the nurse keep in mind? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age-related hearing loss begins in the mid-40s. This is because presbycusis, or age-related hearing loss, typically starts around the mid-40s due to natural aging processes affecting the inner ear. Choice B is incorrect as the progression of hearing loss can vary, being gradual for some individuals but not necessarily slow for everyone. Choice C is incorrect as high-frequency tone loss, not low-frequency, is commonly associated with aging. Choice D is incorrect as difficulty hearing consonants is more related to specific types of hearing loss, not solely age-related changes.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following findings during examination would indicate Paget's disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elongated head with heavy eyebrow ridge. Paget's disease is a bone disorder characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, leading to enlarged and deformed bones. The elongated head and heavy eyebrow ridge are typical features seen in individuals with Paget's disease due to overgrowth of bones in the skull. A: Positive MacEwen's sign - This finding is associated with congenital hip dysplasia, not Paget's disease. B: Premature closure of the sagittal suture - This is a characteristic finding in craniosynostosis, not Paget's disease. C: Headache, vertigo, tinnitus, and deafness - These symptoms are more indicative of an inner ear disorder or vestibular dysfunction, not Paget's disease.
Question 5 of 9
The tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth is the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: frenulum. The frenulum is a small fold of tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth. It helps to limit the movement of the tongue, preventing excessive movement that could lead to injury. The uvula (A) is a soft tissue dangling at the back of the throat, the palate (B) is the roof of the mouth, and papillae (C) are small raised structures on the tongue's surface. These structures are not involved in connecting the tongue to the floor of the mouth.
Question 6 of 9
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is the best way to palpate the lymph nodes in the neck?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using the index and middle fingers to palpate with gentle pressure in a rotating pattern allows for a thorough examination of the lymph nodes without causing discomfort or injury. This method helps to assess the size, shape, consistency, and tenderness of the nodes accurately. It also enables the examiner to detect any abnormalities such as enlargement or tenderness. A is incorrect as using strong pressure can be painful and lead to inaccurate assessment. B is incorrect as strong pressure can be harmful and may not provide the necessary sensitivity to detect abnormalities. C is incorrect as pinching each node can be uncomfortable and may not allow for a systematic examination of the lymph nodes.
Question 8 of 9
A father brings his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says that his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been occurring at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test skin mobility and turgor in this infant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Over the sternum. When testing for skin mobility and turgor in infants, the sternum is the best location. This area is less affected by factors like fat distribution and muscle tone, providing a more accurate assessment of dehydration. The skin should be gently pinched and released to observe how quickly it returns to its normal position - delayed return indicates dehydration. The other choices are incorrect because testing over the forehead, forearms, or abdomen may not provide an accurate assessment due to variations in fat distribution, muscle tone, or skin elasticity in those areas.
Question 9 of 9
The portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage and skin is called the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: auricle. The auricle is the visible, outer portion of the ear made up of movable cartilage and skin. It serves to collect sound waves and direct them into the ear canal. The other choices are incorrect because the concha (B) is the concave cavity leading to the ear canal, the outer meatus (C) is the ear canal itself, and the mastoid process (D) is a bony protrusion behind the ear that has no role in sound collection.