ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 65-year-old male has reported a crusty nodule behind the pinna. Over the past 6 months, the nodule has been bleeding intermittently and has not healed. On physical assessment, the nurse finds an ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base. The preliminary analysis in this situation would be that this:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the characteristics described (bleeding, not healing, ulcerated, indurated base) are indicative of a potential carcinoma, such as squamous cell carcinoma. These features raise concerns about malignancy and warrant immediate referral for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a benign sebaceous cyst (A) typically presents as a smooth, non-ulcerated mass, Darwin's tubercle (B) is a normal anatomical variation behind the ear and not associated with bleeding or ulceration, and a tophus (D) is a deposit of uric acid crystals seen in gout and would not present in this manner.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is a risk factor for ear infections in young children?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Second-hand cigarette smoke. Exposure to second-hand smoke can irritate and inflame the lining of the Eustachian tube, making young children more susceptible to ear infections. This is supported by research showing a clear link between exposure to cigarette smoke and increased rates of ear infections in children. Family history (A) may contribute to genetic predisposition but is not a direct risk factor. Air conditioning (B) does not directly cause ear infections. Excessive cerumen (C) can lead to blockages but is not a primary risk factor for infections.
Question 3 of 9
A mother brings her 2-month-old daughter in for an examination and says,"My daughter rolled over and hit her head on the wall, and now I have noticed that she has this spot that is soft on the top of her head. Is there something terribly wrong?" The nurse's response would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The "soft spot" on a baby's head, also known as the fontanelle, is a normal anatomical feature that allows for the growth and development of the baby's brain during the first year of life. It is a gap between the bones of the skull that eventually closes as the baby grows. Response A is incorrect because the fontanelle is not related to maternal dietary intake during pregnancy. Response B is incorrect as craniosynostosis is a condition where the sutures of the skull close prematurely, leading to abnormal head shape. Response C is incorrect as cretinism and congenital hypothyroidism are not typically associated with the fontanelle. Overall, the correct response, D, provides an accurate explanation of the normal function of the fontanelle in a newborn's development.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following findings during examination would indicate Paget's disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elongated head with heavy eyebrow ridge. Paget's disease is a bone disorder characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, leading to enlarged and deformed bones. The elongated head and heavy eyebrow ridge are typical features seen in individuals with Paget's disease due to overgrowth of bones in the skull. A: Positive MacEwen's sign - This finding is associated with congenital hip dysplasia, not Paget's disease. B: Premature closure of the sagittal suture - This is a characteristic finding in craniosynostosis, not Paget's disease. C: Headache, vertigo, tinnitus, and deafness - These symptoms are more indicative of an inner ear disorder or vestibular dysfunction, not Paget's disease.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is the best way to palpate the lymph nodes in the neck?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using the index and middle fingers to palpate with gentle pressure in a rotating pattern allows for a thorough examination of the lymph nodes without causing discomfort or injury. This method helps to assess the size, shape, consistency, and tenderness of the nodes accurately. It also enables the examiner to detect any abnormalities such as enlargement or tenderness. A is incorrect as using strong pressure can be painful and lead to inaccurate assessment. B is incorrect as strong pressure can be harmful and may not provide the necessary sensitivity to detect abnormalities. C is incorrect as pinching each node can be uncomfortable and may not allow for a systematic examination of the lymph nodes.
Question 6 of 9
When examining the eye, the nurse is aware that the bulbar conjunctiva:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: overlies the sclera. The bulbar conjunctiva is the transparent layer that covers the white part of the eye (sclera). This layer helps protect the eye and keeps it moist. It does not cover the iris and pupil (B), as that is the cornea's role. It is not visible at the inner canthus (C), which is where the lacrimal caruncle is located. Lastly, it is not a mucous membrane lining the lids (D), as that is the role of the palpebral conjunctiva. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Question 7 of 9
A patient's medical record describes a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination, the nurse would expect to find:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: lesions that run together. Confluent lesions refer to merging or blending of individual lesions to form a larger lesion. This indicates a continuous area of involvement on the skin. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe confluent lesions as they refer to different patterns of lesion distribution such as annular, linear, or grouped. The key to identifying confluent lesions is the concept of merging or running together, which is best represented by choice A.
Question 8 of 9
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse notices that a patient's submental lymph nodes are enlarged. In an effort to identify the cause of the node enlargement, the nurse would assess the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: supraclavicular area. Enlarged submental lymph nodes can indicate a systemic issue. Assessing the supraclavicular area is important as it contains Virchow's node, which may indicate malignancy or metastasis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically target the area most likely to reveal significant findings related to the enlarged submental lymph nodes.