A 65-year-old female with hypertension and diabetes is prescribed amlodipine. Amlodipine works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that specifically targets L-type calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle cells. By blocking these channels, amlodjsonline reduces the influx of calcium ions, leading to vasodilation and decreased peripheral vascular resistance, which ultimately lowers blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine does not inhibit the synthesis of angiotensin II, inhibit sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, or block beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a beta2-adrenergic agonist that primarily acts on beta2 receptors in the lungs to cause bronchodilation. However, it can also stimulate beta1 receptors in the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate (tachycardia). This is a commonly observed side effect of albuterol use. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with albuterol use due to its beta-adreergic agonist activity. Weight gain (C) is not a common side effect of albuterol and is more commonly associated with other medications. Hypoglycemia (D) is not a typical side effect of albuterol use, as it does not directly affect blood sugar levels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blocking muscarinic receptors in the airways. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic medication that works by blocking muscarinic receptors, leading to bronchodilation in patients with COPD. This mechanism of action reduces bronchoconstriction and improves airflow. A: Relaxing bronchial smooth muscle by stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors is incorrect because ipratropium does not act on beta-2 adrenergic receptors. B: Inhibiting the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine in the lungs is incorrect as ipratropium does not affect the breakdown of acetylcholine. D: Inhibiting the release of histamine from mast cells is incorrect because ipratropium does not target histamine release. In summary, the correct answer is C because ipratropium's mechanism of action involves blocking muscarinic receptors to achieve bronchodilation in COPD patients

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting the release of norepinephrine in the brainstem. Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that works by inhibiting norepinephrine release in the brainstem, leading to decreased sympathetic outflow and ultimately reducing blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clonidine does not act by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart, promoting vasodilation by inhibiting calcium channels, or increasing the excretion of sodium and water in the kidneys. The primary mechanism of clonidine's antihypertensive effect lies in its action on norepinephrine release in the brainstem.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A corticosteroid. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, which is crucial in managing asthma. Corticosteroids are the mainstay of asthma treatment as they help to decrease airway inflammation and prevent asthma symptoms. Choice A, a beta-agonist, is incorrect because beta-agonists work by relaxing the muscles around the airways and are usually used as rescue inhalers for quick relief of asthma symptoms. Choice C, a leukotriene modifier, is incorrect as leukotriene modifiers work by blocking the action of certain immune system chemicals that cause asthma symptoms, but they are not the classification for fluticasone. Choice D, an anticholinergic agent, is incorrect as anticholinergics work by blocking acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes airway constriction, and are typically used in conditions like COPD, not as the