ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 65 y.o. woman complains of complicated mouth opening following foot trauma 10 days ago. Next day she ate with difficulties, there were muscles tension of back, the back of the head and abdomen. On the third day there was tension of all muscle groups, generalized convulsions every 10-15 min. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Tetanus (Choice A) based on the symptoms described. Tetanus is characterized by muscle stiffness, difficulty opening the mouth (trismus), muscle spasms, and convulsions. The progression of symptoms from muscle tension to generalized convulsions every 10-15 min is classic for tetanus. Tetania (Choice B) is similar but typically presents with more subtle muscle contractions rather than convulsions. Meningoencephalitis (Choice C) presents with fever, headache, and altered mental status, not the muscle symptoms described. Hemorrhagic stroke (Choice D) presents with sudden onset neurological deficits like weakness or sensory changes, not the muscle symptoms described.
Question 2 of 9
A stool sample from a patient with diarrhea revealed Gram-negative rods with a greenish hue on MacConkey agar. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that typically has a greenish hue on MacConkey agar due to its ability to ferment lactose, producing acid that changes the pH indicator to green. E. coli is a common cause of diarrhea, particularly in cases of traveler's diarrhea. Salmonella (B), Shigella (C), and Klebsiella (D) are also Gram-negative rods but do not typically show a greenish hue on MacConkey agar and are less commonly associated with causing diarrhea compared to E. coli.
Question 3 of 9
The effects of different kinds of radiation depend on the following factors:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because intensity, frequency, and thickness of the sample are key factors that determine the effects of different kinds of radiation. Intensity refers to the amount of energy carried by the radiation, frequency indicates the number of waves per unit time, and the thickness of the sample affects the penetration of radiation. These factors directly influence the interactions of radiation with matter, such as ionization and heating effects. A is incorrect because wavelength is not a major factor in determining the effects of radiation. C is incorrect because distance and nature of the sample are not as significant as intensity, frequency, and thickness. D is incorrect because chemical composition and shielding, while important in certain contexts, are not the primary factors affecting the effects of radiation.
Question 4 of 9
Infection of many people with known epidemiological link' is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epidemic. This term refers to the widespread occurrence of an infectious disease in a specific community or region at a particular time. In this scenario, the infection of many people with a known epidemiological link indicates a localized outbreak within a defined population. Explanation: 1. Epidemic specifically refers to a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in a population. 2. The term "known epidemiological link" suggests a clear connection between the cases, indicating a common source or mode of transmission within a specific group. 3. Endemic (choice A) refers to the constant presence of a disease within a specific geographic area or population. 4. Pandemic (choice B) refers to a global outbreak of a disease that spreads across countries and continents. 5. Sporadic disease (choice D) refers to isolated cases that occur infrequently and without a clear pattern. In summary, an epidemic best describes the situation of many people being
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Vibrio cholerae is a bacterium known to cause cholera, a foodborne illness transmitted through contaminated water. Step 2: Cholera outbreaks are often linked to unsanitary water sources, making Vibrio cholerae the correct choice. Step 3: Clostridium difficile causes gastrointestinal infections, not typically associated with contaminated water. Step 4: Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis, a respiratory disease, not related to foodborne illnesses. Step 5: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted bacterium, not linked to foodborne illnesses from contaminated water.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following specific immune mechanisms offer NO protection against infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Immunological tolerance to the pathogen Rationale: 1. Immunological tolerance is when the immune system does not mount a response against specific antigens to prevent autoimmunity. 2. In the context of infection, tolerance to the pathogen means the immune system does not recognize the pathogen as a threat and does not initiate a protective response. 3. This lack of response leaves the host vulnerable to infection as there is no specific immune defense mechanism activated against the pathogen. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Opsonic action of antibody - enhances phagocytosis of pathogens B: Viral neutralization by specific antibody - prevents viral entry into host cells D: Neutralization of protein exotoxin - prevents the harmful effects of toxins produced by pathogens.
Question 7 of 9
The normal flora present in the healthy male reproductive system is best characterized as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The male reproductive system is considered sterile as it does not have a natural microbiota. 2. Any presence of microorganisms in this system could indicate an infection or disease. 3. Therefore, choice C, sterile with no normal flora, is the best characterization. Summary: A: Incorrect - The male reproductive system does not typically have gram-positive rods. B: Incorrect - Acid-fast rods are not part of the normal flora in the male reproductive system. D: Incorrect - The male reproductive system does not typically have gram-positive spore formers.
Question 8 of 9
A patient suffering from syphilis was prescribed a drug the action of which based upon disturbed generation of murein leading to death of the causative agent. What drug is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzylpenicillin sodium salt. Benzylpenicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic that inhibits the synthesis of bacterial cell walls by disrupting the formation of murein (peptidoglycan), leading to bacterial cell death. This mechanism specifically targets the causative agent of syphilis, Treponema pallidum. - Choice B: Bijochinol is not a known drug used to treat syphilis. - Choice C: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication and is not the first-line treatment for syphilis. - Choice D: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that interferes with bacterial protein synthesis and is commonly used to treat other infections but is not the preferred treatment for syphilis.
Question 9 of 9
Which bacteria is known for its ability to resist heat and radiation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bacillus subtilis. Bacillus subtilis is known for its ability to resist heat and radiation due to its formation of endospores, which are highly resistant structures that protect the bacterium from harsh environmental conditions. This resilience allows Bacillus subtilis to survive in extreme environments where other bacteria cannot. Explanation of other choices: A: Escherichia coli is not known for its exceptional resistance to heat and radiation. C: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not particularly resistant to heat and radiation compared to Bacillus subtilis. D: Clostridium perfringens is not as well-known for its heat and radiation resistance as Bacillus subtilis.