ATI RN
Effects of Pharmacological Treatments on Clients Across a Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 64-year-old woman is hospitalized for COPD exacerbation. While in the hospital, she becomes constipated. She also takes metoprolol for hypertension and mirtazapine for depression. The physician gives her docusate. Which of the following adverse reactions is most likely to occur as a result of docusate administration in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is B) Diarrhea. Docusate is a stool softener commonly used to treat constipation. It works by increasing water content in the stool, making it easier to pass. In the context of a 64-year-old woman with COPD exacerbation taking metoprolol and mirtazapine, the most likely adverse reaction to docusate would be diarrhea due to its mechanism of action. Option A) Cardiac arrhythmia is less likely because docusate does not typically affect cardiac rhythm. Option C) Hypertension is also less likely as docusate does not have a direct effect on blood pressure. Option D) Rash is an uncommon side effect of docusate and would not be the most likely reaction in this scenario. From an educational perspective, understanding the pharmacological effects of medications and their potential interactions is crucial in providing safe and effective care to patients. Healthcare professionals need to consider a patient's entire medication regimen and medical history when prescribing new medications to prevent adverse reactions and optimize therapeutic outcomes. This case highlights the importance of medication management in complex clinical situations to ensure patient safety and well-being.
Question 2 of 5
A 58-year-old man with a long history of depression is evaluated for treatment by his primary care physician. The physician begins treatment with sertraline. The patient is concerned about the possibility of sexual dysfunction. Which of the following changes is possible?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Delayed ejaculation. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat depression, has known side effects related to sexual function. Delayed ejaculation is a potential side effect of sertraline, impacting a person's ability to ejaculate during sexual activity. Option A) Altered penile sensation is less likely as a direct effect of sertraline. Option C) Normal libido may not be the case due to the impact of sertraline on sexual function. Option D) Normal orgasm is less likely as sertraline can affect the process leading to ejaculation. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare providers to discuss potential side effects of pharmacological treatments with patients to ensure informed decision-making and to address concerns. Understanding the side effect profile of medications like sertraline can help clinicians tailor treatment plans to individual patient needs, promoting better outcomes and treatment adherence.
Question 3 of 5
A 74-year-old man with bladder cancer and refractory depression is tried on a new agent to help his depression. Tranylcypromine is begun by his primary care physician. Which of the following adverse reactions may be expected in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Anxiety. Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used to treat depression. MAOIs can lead to an increase in anxiety due to their mechanism of action on neurotransmitters like serotonin and norepinephrine. The inhibition of MAO can cause these neurotransmitters to accumulate, leading to increased stimulation which may manifest as anxiety in some patients. Option B) Hepatitis is incorrect because tranylcypromine is not known to cause liver toxicity or hepatitis as a common adverse reaction. Option C) Normalization of blood glucose levels is incorrect because tranylcypromine does not have a direct effect on blood glucose levels. Option D) Salivation is incorrect because tranylcypromine is not associated with changes in salivation as an adverse reaction. In an educational context, understanding the potential adverse reactions of pharmacological treatments is crucial for healthcare providers to make informed decisions and provide safe care to patients. Knowing the expected side effects of medications allows for early recognition and management of adverse reactions, improving patient outcomes and safety. It also highlights the importance of thorough assessment, monitoring, and patient education when initiating new pharmacological treatments, especially in vulnerable populations like older adults with multiple comorbidities.
Question 4 of 5
A 34-year-old man with a seizure disorder presents to the emergency department with severe left-sided flank pain. The pain began suddenly this morning and has not improved. His urinalysis shows microscopic hematuria, and a KUB confirms a kidney stone. Which pain medication should be avoided in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is D) Tramadol. Tramadol is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizures due to its potential to lower the seizure threshold. Since the patient presented with a seizure disorder, prescribing tramadol could potentially worsen his condition by increasing the risk of seizures. Acetaminophen (Option A) is generally considered safe for patients with seizure disorders and can be used for pain relief in this case. Butorphanol (Option B) and Fentanyl (Option C) are opioid analgesics that can be used for pain management in this patient population, but they do not pose the same risk of lowering the seizure threshold as tramadol. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of considering a patient's comorbid conditions and medical history when selecting pharmacological treatments. It underscores the need for healthcare providers to have a thorough understanding of drug contraindications and potential adverse effects to ensure patient safety and optimal treatment outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
A 44-year-old man with multiple medical problems is placed on a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor which inhibits bicarbonate reabsorption and acts as a weak diuretic. This agent works at which of the following areas in the nephron?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Location 1, which refers to the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors like acetazolamide work by inhibiting the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in the proximal convoluted tubule. This inhibition leads to decreased reabsorption of bicarbonate, resulting in a mild diuretic effect. Option B) Location 2, which is the loop of Henle, is incorrect because carbonic anhydrase inhibitors do not primarily act in this part of the nephron. Option C) Location 3, which is the distal convoluted tubule, is also incorrect as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors do not target this specific area for their mechanism of action. Option D) Location 4, which would be the collecting duct, is also an incorrect choice as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors primarily act in the proximal convoluted tubule. Understanding the specific location of action of pharmacological treatments on the nephron is crucial for healthcare professionals to predict the drug's effects on renal physiology and overall patient care. This knowledge aids in selecting appropriate medications, monitoring for potential side effects, and optimizing therapeutic outcomes for clients across the lifespan.