A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department unconscious. He undergoes a CT of the chest, which reveals a pulmonary embolism. He is considered for immediate therapy with heparin. Because the man is unconscious, a history cannot be obtained from him. Which of the following would represent a contraindication to heparin therapy?

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ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department unconscious. He undergoes a CT of the chest, which reveals a pulmonary embolism. He is considered for immediate therapy with heparin. Because the man is unconscious, a history cannot be obtained from him. Which of the following would represent a contraindication to heparin therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Heparin for pulmonary embolism has bleeding risks. Recent surgery -is a contraindication due to postoperative hemorrhage potential. Alcoholism , drug abuse , hypertension , and immune deficiency (E) aren't absolute. Surgery's timing is key in this unconscious patient.

Question 2 of 5

Oral decongestants differ from intranasal decongestants in that oral decongestants

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Oral decongestants cause systemic effects like hypertension, unlike nasal ones risking rebound. Efficacy (choices A, D) varies, rebound is nasal-specific. B highlights the key difference, making it correct.

Question 3 of 5

A client is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) for GERD. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Omeprazole, a PPI, reduces acid by inhibiting proton pumps, most effective before meals when acid production peaks, optimizing GERD relief. With antacids reduces efficacy'PPIs need acidic pH. Crushing destroys enteric coating. Bedtime-only misses daytime acid. Pre-meal dosing aligns with omeprazole's mechanism, critical in GERD where timing enhances healing, making A the key instruction.

Question 4 of 5

A client is admitted to the emergency room complaining of difficulty of breathing and upon auscultation, the nurse noted that the patient has wheezes. An allergic reaction to penicillin was

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Albuterol (Ventolin HFA) is a short-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator commonly used to treat asthma exacerbations and wheezing. In this case, the patient presenting with wheezes and difficulty breathing likely has bronchospasm, which albuterol can help relieve by relaxing the muscles in the airways. It is the first-line treatment for acute bronchospasm and is administered via inhalation to provide quick relief of symptoms. Albuterol works rapidly to open up the airways, making it an appropriate initial medication to administer in this situation.

Question 5 of 5

A 43-year-old Caucasian woman complains that her irises have been darkening. She says that she has been taking a drug for years to treat her glaucoma. Which of the following drugs is most likely causing the increased pigmentation of her irises?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Iris darkening in glaucoma treatment points to Latanoprost , a prostaglandin analog. It increases melanin in iridial melanocytes, a known side effect. Acetazolamide , a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, Epinephrine , Pilocarpine , and Timolol (E) don't cause this. Latanoprost's cosmetic effect is well-documented, fitting her long-term use.

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