ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 64-year-old man complains of leg pain and occasional numbness that worsens with ambulation and improves with lumbar flexion. The symptoms are consistent with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinal stenosis. The symptoms described suggest neurogenic claudication, which is a hallmark of spinal stenosis. Pain worsening with ambulation and improving with lumbar flexion is characteristic of spinal stenosis due to narrowing of the spinal canal leading to compression of nerves. Ankylosing spondylitis (A) presents with inflammatory back pain and stiffness, not neurogenic claudication. Bursitis (C) involves inflammation of bursae, not typically associated with leg pain and numbness. Cauda equina syndrome (D) presents with sudden-onset severe back pain, urinary retention, and saddle anesthesia, which are not consistent with the described symptoms.
Question 2 of 9
An 86-year-old female comes to your office for a wellness visit. Her blood pressure is 125/70 mmHg, pulse 69 beats per minute, and respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute. She is well-appearing and reports she is up to date on her routine vaccinations. She introduces her partner of 35 years, whom she would like to make medical decisions for her in case she becomes unable to make decisions for herself. She reports that she and her partner are not married. She asks if she needs any further documentation to ensure her goals of care are followed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Advise them to file an advanced directive. An advanced directive is a legal document that allows individuals to specify their healthcare preferences in advance, including who they want to make medical decisions for them if they are unable to do so. In this scenario, since the patient and her partner are not married, it is important for her to have an advanced directive in place to ensure that her partner is legally recognized as the decision-maker. This documentation will help ensure her goals of care are followed in case she becomes incapacitated. Choice A (Advise them to complete a POLST) is incorrect because a POLST (Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment) form is used to specify a patient's wishes for end-of-life care, not for designating a medical decision-maker. Choice B (Advise them that they have adequate documentation to be recognized legally) is incorrect because without an advanced directive, there may be legal challenges to the partner's authority to make medical decisions
Question 3 of 9
Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in women with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Migraines with aura. Estrogen in contraceptives can increase the risk of stroke in patients with migraines with aura due to its effect on blood clotting. Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in these patients to reduce the risk of adverse cardiovascular events. Choices A, C, and D do not have a direct contraindication to estrogen-progestin contraceptives based on current guidelines.
Question 4 of 9
A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Exophthalmos. Exophthalmos refers to protrusion of the eyeball, which is a hallmark sign of thyroid eye disease. This condition commonly presents with forward bulging of one or both eyes due to inflammation and swelling of the eye muscles and tissues behind the eye. It is often associated with hyperthyroidism. A: Ptosis is drooping of the upper eyelid, not protrusion of the eyeball. C: Ectropion is an outward turning of the eyelid, not protrusion of the eyeball. D: Epicanthus is a vertical fold of skin on the upper eyelid near the nose, not protrusion of the eyeball.
Question 5 of 9
Why would a combined hormonal contraceptive be contraindicated in a 36-year-old patient with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, obesity, chronic smoking, and a sedentary lifestyle?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The patient's age (36 years) and chronic smoking are the main reasons why a combined hormonal contraceptive would be contraindicated. Age over 35 and tobacco use increase the risk of cardiovascular complications with hormonal contraceptives. Obesity (choice A), type 2 diabetes (choice B), and a sedentary lifestyle (choice D) are also risk factors, but they are not the primary reasons for contraindicating combined hormonal contraceptives in this case.
Question 6 of 9
A 64-year-old man complains of leg pain and occasional numbness that worsens with ambulation and improves with lumbar flexion. The symptoms are consistent with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinal stenosis. The symptoms described suggest neurogenic claudication, which is a hallmark of spinal stenosis. Pain worsening with ambulation and improving with lumbar flexion is characteristic of spinal stenosis due to narrowing of the spinal canal leading to compression of nerves. Ankylosing spondylitis (A) presents with inflammatory back pain and stiffness, not neurogenic claudication. Bursitis (C) involves inflammation of bursae, not typically associated with leg pain and numbness. Cauda equina syndrome (D) presents with sudden-onset severe back pain, urinary retention, and saddle anesthesia, which are not consistent with the described symptoms.
Question 7 of 9
A 22-year-old architecture major comes to your office, complaining of severe burning with urination, a fever of 101 degrees, and aching all over. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of severe acne. She is currently on an oral contraceptive. She has had no pregnancies or surgeries. She reports one new partner within the last month. She does not smoke but does drink occasionally. Her parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young woman appearing slightly ill. Her temperature is 3 and her pulse and blood pressure are unremarkable. Her head, ears, eyes, nose, throat, cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal nodes shows lymphadenopathy bilaterally. On visualization of the perineum there are more than 10 shallow ulcers along each side of the vulva. Speculum and bimanual examination are unremarkable for findings, although she is very tender at the introitus. Urine analysis has some white blood cells but no red blood cells or bacteria. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. Which disorder of the vulva is most likely in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital herpes. The patient's symptoms of severe burning with urination, fever, lymphadenopathy, and multiple shallow ulcers along the vulva are classic for genital herpes. The new sexual partner and absence of red blood cells or bacteria in the urine support a sexually transmitted infection. The presence of white blood cells in urine and absence of other systemic symptoms help differentiate it from other choices. Condylomata acuminata (choice B) present as warty lesions and do not cause the systemic symptoms described. Syphilitic chancre (choice C) would typically present as a single painless ulcer and is unlikely given the multiple shallow ulcers described. Epidermoid cyst (choice D) does not match the clinical presentation of fever, burning with urination, and lymphadenopathy.
Question 8 of 9
A 79-year-old client is admitted with pneumonia. Which symptom would most likely indicate the need for further evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest pain and pleuritic breathing. This indicates possible complications like pleurisy or pleural effusion, requiring further evaluation. A: Persistent cough with sputum production is common in pneumonia. C: Shortness of breath is a typical symptom of pneumonia. D: Fever and chills are also common in pneumonia. However, chest pain and pleuritic breathing are more indicative of potential complications that may require immediate attention.
Question 9 of 9
You are palpating the apical impulse in a patient with heart disease and find that the amplitude is diffuse and increased. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause of an increase in the amplitude of the impulse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, cardiomyopathy. Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle that can lead to an increase in the size and strength of the heart muscle, resulting in an increased amplitude of the apical impulse. This is due to the heart working harder to pump blood effectively. Hypothyroidism (choice A) typically does not cause an increase in the amplitude of the apical impulse. Aortic stenosis (choice B) and mitral stenosis (choice C) both result in pressure or volume overload on specific chambers of the heart, but they do not directly lead to diffuse and increased amplitude of the apical impulse like cardiomyopathy does. In summary, an increase in the amplitude of the apical impulse is more likely to be caused by cardiomyopathy due to the increased workload on the heart muscle, compared to the other conditions provided in the choices.