ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 63-year-old man with glaucoma maintained on a regimen of topical medications with an exacerbation of his symptoms. He complains of difficulty with his vision in both eyes and has headaches. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glaucoma involves elevated intraocular pressure (IOP), and this patient's exacerbation-vision difficulty and headaches-requires effective IOP reduction. Bimatoprost and Latanoprost are prostaglandin analogs, increasing outflow, but may not act fast enough for acute worsening. Pilocarpine , a muscarinic agonist, contracts the ciliary muscle, opening the trabecular meshwork, enhancing aqueous humor outflow, and rapidly lowering IOP-ideal for this scenario. Tetracycline is an antibiotic, irrelevant. Travoprost (E), another prostaglandin, is similar to A and B. Pilocarpine's direct action on outflow makes it most appropriate for urgent IOP control in open-angle or angle-closure glaucoma exacerbation. Its side effects (miosis, brow ache) are tolerable given the need for immediate relief, distinguishing it from slower-acting prostaglandins.
Question 2 of 9
The following are subject to extensive presystemic (first-pass) metabolism:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver, which reduces its oral bioavailability significantly.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has been receiving intravenous heparin. When laboratory tests are drawn, the nurse has difficulty
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin, which is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of bleeding or elevated PTT/aPTT levels. It works by binding to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant activity. Therefore, in this scenario where the patient is experiencing bloody stools, abdominal pain, and has elevated PTT/aPTT levels, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain an order for protamine sulfate to reverse the effects of heparin. This will help normalize the patient's coagulation profile and manage any bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse administers furosemide (Lasix) to a client with edema. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, treats edema by increasing urine output but depletes potassium via renal excretion, risking hypokalemia. This can cause muscle weakness or arrhythmias, critical in edema patients often with cardiac issues. Monitoring potassium closely ensures timely correction, preventing life-threatening complications. Sodium may decrease but is less urgent unless extreme. Calcium loss occurs but is rarer and less impactful acutely. Glucose isn't directly affected by furosemide. Potassium's rapid depletion aligns with the drug's mechanism'blocking the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter'making it the priority lab value. Regular checks (e.g., serum levels) guide supplementation, ensuring safety during diuresis, thus B is the nurse's focus for effective monitoring and intervention.
Question 5 of 9
What does it mean when a medication has a half-life?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a medication has a half-life, it refers to the time it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the bloodstream. Half-life is an important pharmacokinetic parameter which helps determine the dosing interval and duration of action of a drug. By understanding the half-life of a medication, healthcare providers can make informed decisions regarding dosing schedules to maintain therapeutic levels in the body.
Question 6 of 9
A client with benign prostatic hyperplasia is to receive finasteride (Proscar). The nurse understands that this drug works by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Finasteride (Proscar), a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, shrinks the prostate in BPH by reducing dihydrotestosterone, easing urinary obstruction. Smooth muscle relaxation is for ED drugs like sildenafil. It lowers DHT, not testosterone, and doesn't stimulate RNA synthesis. Prostate shrinkage is its core action, distinct from other mechanisms.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is monitoring a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine (Neoral). The nurse observes an elevation in one of the client's vital signs and the client is complaining of sweating and
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclosporine, a common immunosuppressive medication used in post-renal transplantation clients, can cause a range of adverse effects, including hypertension, nephrotoxicity, and electrolyte imbalances. One of the significant side effects of cyclosporine is causing an elevation in the pulse rate, also known as tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common side effect of cyclosporine due to its direct effects on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, in the context of a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine, an elevation in pulse rate is the most likely vital sign to be increased. Sweatiness may be a response to the increased heart rate and may also be a side effect of cyclosporine. However, the primary vital sign affected by cyclosporine would be the pulse rate.
Question 8 of 9
Ace Inhibitors often end in?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The majority of ACE inhibitors end in the suffix "-pril". ACE inhibitors are a class of medications commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, heart failure, and reducing the risk of heart attacks. The suffix "-pril" is a common way to identify drugs belonging to this class, making it easier for healthcare professionals and patients to recognize them. Examples of ACE inhibitors that end in "-pril" include captopril, enalapril, lisinopril, and ramipril.
Question 9 of 9
A 63-year-old man with glaucoma maintained on a regimen of topical medications with an exacerbation of his symptoms. He complains of difficulty with his vision in both eyes and has headaches. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glaucoma involves elevated intraocular pressure (IOP), and this patient's exacerbation-vision difficulty and headaches-requires effective IOP reduction. Bimatoprost and Latanoprost are prostaglandin analogs, increasing outflow, but may not act fast enough for acute worsening. Pilocarpine , a muscarinic agonist, contracts the ciliary muscle, opening the trabecular meshwork, enhancing aqueous humor outflow, and rapidly lowering IOP-ideal for this scenario. Tetracycline is an antibiotic, irrelevant. Travoprost (E), another prostaglandin, is similar to A and B. Pilocarpine's direct action on outflow makes it most appropriate for urgent IOP control in open-angle or angle-closure glaucoma exacerbation. Its side effects (miosis, brow ache) are tolerable given the need for immediate relief, distinguishing it from slower-acting prostaglandins.