A 62-yr-old patient who has no history of hypertension or other health problems suddenly develops a blood pressure (BP) of 198/110 mm Hg. After reconfirming the BP. It is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient that:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a sudden high blood pressure reading warrants further evaluation for diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring. This patient's elevated BP of 198/110 mm Hg puts them at risk for serious complications like stroke, heart attack, or kidney damage. It is crucial to assess the underlying cause, initiate appropriate treatment, and closely monitor the BP to prevent complications. Choice A is incorrect because waiting a few weeks for a recheck can delay necessary intervention. Choice B is incorrect as simply adjusting diet may not be sufficient to address the sudden spike in BP. Choice D is incorrect because while there is a risk of stroke, hospitalization may not be required immediately without further assessment and management.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Warfarin (Coumadin). Warfarin is commonly given concurrently with digoxin in patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent blood clots and reduce the risk of stroke. Digoxin helps control heart rate in atrial fibrillation but does not prevent clot formation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the need for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic, Inamrinone and Milrinone are inotropes used for heart failure, but none of these medications are indicated for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time 22 seconds. This result indicates the client's blood clotting ability, crucial for surgery. A prolonged prothrombin time can lead to increased bleeding risk during surgery, requiring immediate physician notification. A: Potassium level within normal range, not urgent. C: Hemoglobin level slightly low but not immediately life-threatening. D: Creatinine level within normal range, not urgent for surgery.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood pressure of 140/88 mmHg. This finding indicates a need for discussion with the healthcare provider because it suggests uncontrolled hypertension, which is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease in individuals with diabetes. High blood pressure can lead to complications such as heart disease, stroke, and kidney disease. A: Hemoglobin A1C level of 6.2% is within the target range for a person with diabetes, indicating good blood sugar control. B: A heart rate at rest of 58 beats/min is within the normal range for an active individual and is not a cause for concern. D: A high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 65 mg/dL is considered desirable and is a positive indicator for cardiovascular health.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a blood pressure of 90/54 mm Hg indicates hypotension, a known side effect of metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause a decrease in blood pressure. Choices A and B are more indicative of anxiety or stress rather than a side effect of metoprolol. Choice D, a normal sinus rhythm on the heart monitor, is a desired outcome and not a side effect of metoprolol.