A 62-year-old woman with a history of mental decline, impaired physical activity, and significant mood impairment is seen by her primary care physician. Treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant has begun. Which of the following statements regarding this therapeutic option is true?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that alleviate inflammation, pain, and fever by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, thus reducing prostaglandin synthesis. Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Piroxicam are classic NSAIDs, widely used for conditions like arthritis, menstrual pain, or musculoskeletal injuries due to their anti-inflammatory properties. Butorphanol, however, is an opioid analgesic, not an NSAID. It acts as a mixed agonist-antagonist at opioid receptors (primarily kappa and mu), providing pain relief without significant anti-inflammatory effects, often used for migraines or postoperative pain. Unlike NSAIDs, it doesn't target COX enzymes or reduce inflammation but modulates pain perception via the central nervous system. This fundamental difference in mechanism and drug class makes Butorphanol the exception. Understanding this distinction is crucial in pharmacology to select appropriate treatments based on whether inflammation or pain is the primary concern, preventing misuse and ensuring patient safety.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Methadone (choice B), a long-acting mu agonist, is used in opioid addiction (e.g., morphine, heroin) to stabilize patients, reduce cravings, and prevent withdrawal during detoxification or maintenance. Its slow onset and long half-life minimize euphoria, aiding controlled tapering. Butorphanol (choice A), a mixed agonist-antagonist, isn't standard for addiction due to limited mu agonism. Alfentanil (choice C), a short-acting opioid, is for anesthesia, not addiction. Dextropropoxyphene (choice D), a weak opioid, lacks efficacy for addiction management. Methadone's role is well-established, balancing efficacy and safety in addiction therapy, a key pharmacological strategy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Flumazenil (choice B) reverses benzodiazepine toxicity (e.g., overdose) by competitively antagonizing the GABAa receptor's benzodiazepine site, countering sedation or respiratory depression. Naloxone (choice A) targets opioid overdose, not benzodiazepines. Diazepam (choice C) and Chlordiazepoxide (choice D), both benzodiazepine agonists, worsen toxicity. Flumazenil's specificity is crucial in emergencies, distinguishing it from other antidotes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) relax muscles (choice A), sedate/hypnotize (choice B), and control seizures (choice C) via GABAa potentiation. Hepatic microsomal enzyme induction (choice D) is typical of barbiturates or phenytoin, not benzodiazepines, which are metabolized but don't induce enzymes significantly. This exception differentiates their pharmacology.