ATI RN
Chemotherapy drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 61-year-old man with osteoarthritis comes to the clinic for follow-up. His arthritis has been worsening over the past year. He has pain constantly throughout the day. He reports the only medication that was effective for him was celecoxib, which was pulled from the market. He is willing to try anything that will improve his pain at this point. What side effect is the reason for the removal of celecoxib from the market?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, was associated with an increased risk of thrombosis (e.g., myocardial infarction, stroke) due to unbalanced prostacyclin/thromboxane effects, leading to its market withdrawal in some contexts.
Question 2 of 5
A 26-year-old man with schizophrenia takes daily codeine for no apparent reason. He does not have issues with upper respiratory disease. Which of the following effects would be least likely to be exhibited by this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Codeine, an opioid, causes analgesia, euphoria, sedation, and cough suppression (not dry cough), but tinnitus is not a typical effect, making it least likely.
Question 3 of 5
A 28-year-old man who suffered a crush injury to his lumbar spine (L4 and L5) with disc herniation is managed with meperidine for pain control. He has been taking this medication for 6 months. In addition to pain relief, which of the following other effects is possible?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Long-term meperidine use can lead to neurotoxicity from normeperidine accumulation, causing seizures or tremors, distinct from typical opioid effects like constipation.
Question 4 of 5
A 42-year-old woman who recently immigrated to the United States from Africa presents with diffuse abdominal pain and an unusual rash. The erythematous linear rash spreads from her right upper quadrant to the umbilicus. Laboratory testing confirms the diagnosis of Toxocara canis infection. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mebendazole is effective against Toxocara canis (visceral larva migrans), inhibiting microtubule formation in the nematode, treating abdominal pain and rash.
Question 5 of 5
A 47-year-old man with a history of spina bifida presents to the emergency department with a fever. His temperature was 102°F orally. He has a neurogenic bladder secondary to his spina bifida. A urinalysis showed an infection, and culture grew out vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus. He is started on Linezolid. What is the mechanism of resistance of bacteria to vancomycin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) replaces D-alanine with D-lactate in its cell wall, reducing vancomycin binding affinity, a common resistance mechanism.