ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 61-year old female patient with diabetes is in the emergency department after stepping on a sharp onject while walking barefoot on the beach. The patient did not notice that the object pierced the skin unitl later that evening. What problem does she probably have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: neuropathy on her peripheral. In diabetes, peripheral neuropathy is common, causing loss of sensation in the feet, making it difficult to feel injuries like stepping on a sharp object. This can lead to delayed detection of wounds, increasing the risk of infections and complications. Nephropathy (B) refers to kidney damage, carpal tunnel syndrome (C) involves compression of the median nerve in the wrist, and macroangiopathy (D) refers to large blood vessel disease, which are not directly related to the scenario described.
Question 2 of 9
An adult is being taught about a healthy diet. How can the food pyramid help guide the client on his diet?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: By suggesting daily food choices. The food pyramid helps guide a client's diet by recommending the types and proportions of food to consume daily, such as fruits, vegetables, grains, protein, and dairy. It does not specify exact servings (A), calculate calories (B), or divide food into only four basic groups (D). The pyramid is a visual representation of a balanced diet, emphasizing variety and moderation.
Question 3 of 9
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The rationale is that NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association-International) approves nursing diagnoses that are specific, measurable, and relevant to nursing care. Acute pain fits these criteria as it is a common nursing diagnosis that can be assessed objectively and treated with nursing interventions. The other choices (sore throat, sleep apnea, heart failure) are medical diagnoses that do not fall under the scope of nursing diagnoses approved by NANDA-I. Therefore, acute pain is the most appropriate diagnosis to be documented in a patient's care plan according to NANDA-I guidelines.
Question 4 of 9
A 61-year old female patient with diabetes is in the emergency department after stepping on a sharp onject while walking barefoot on the beach. The patient did not notice that the object pierced the skin unitl later that evening. What problem does she probably have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: neuropathy on her peripheral. In diabetes, peripheral neuropathy is common, causing loss of sensation in the feet, making it difficult to feel injuries like stepping on a sharp object. This can lead to delayed detection of wounds, increasing the risk of infections and complications. Nephropathy (B) refers to kidney damage, carpal tunnel syndrome (C) involves compression of the median nerve in the wrist, and macroangiopathy (D) refers to large blood vessel disease, which are not directly related to the scenario described.
Question 5 of 9
While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse should take note of what assessment parameters?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time. These parameters are essential in monitoring DIC because platelet count reflects the risk of bleeding, while prolonged prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time indicate impaired clotting function, which is characteristic of DIC. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Blood glucose levels and WBC count are not specific indicators for DIC monitoring. - Choice C: Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels do not directly assess clotting abnormalities associated with DIC. - Choice D: While fibrinogen level is important in DIC, WBC count alone is not a specific indicator for monitoring DIC.
Question 6 of 9
A febrile patient’s fluid output is in excess of normal because of diaphoresis. The nurse should plan fluid replacement based on the knowledge that insensible losses in an afebrile person are normally not greater than:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (600ml/24hr) because insensible fluid losses in an afebrile person are typically around 600ml per 24 hours. Insensible losses include water lost through the skin as sweat and through the lungs during respiration. These losses are not easily quantifiable but are estimated to be around 600ml/day in normal circumstances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are either too low (A and B) or too high (D) compared to the normal range of insensible fluid losses. Selecting C as the correct answer is based on the understanding of physiological principles related to fluid balance and normal body functions.
Question 7 of 9
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it is essential for the nurse to ensure accurate and up-to-date vital signs before administering medications. By asking the NAP to record the patient's vital signs, the nurse can make informed decisions about the patient's condition and prevent any potential complications. Choice A is incorrect because administering medications without knowing the patient's vital signs, particularly if they are abnormal, can be dangerous. Choice B is not the best course of action as it delays the crucial step of obtaining the vital signs. Choice D is incorrect as omitting vital signs without assessment could compromise patient safety. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate response to ensure patient well-being and medication safety.
Question 8 of 9
An adult is on a clear liquid diet. Which food item can be offered/
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jello. A clear liquid diet includes transparent liquids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Jello meets this criteria as it is a clear, easily digestible food. Milk (A) is not allowed on a clear liquid diet due to its opaque nature. Orange juice (B) contains pulp and is not considered clear. Ice cream (D) is a solid food and not permitted on a clear liquid diet. Therefore, Jello is the most suitable option for someone on a clear liquid diet.
Question 9 of 9
Nursing assessment for a patient with metabolic alkalosis includes evaluation of laboratory data for all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH is elevated due to an excess of bicarbonate. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can be seen in other conditions like diabetes or fasting. Evaluating for hypocalcemia (A) is important as alkalosis can lead to decreased ionized calcium levels. Hypokalemia (B) is common in metabolic alkalosis due to potassium loss. Hypoxemia (D) is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can occur in severe cases due to respiratory compensation. Therefore, hypoglycemia is the least relevant in assessing metabolic alkalosis.