ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 61-year old female patient with diabetes is in the emergency department after stepping on a sharp onject while walking barefoot on the beach. The patient did not notice that the object pierced the skin unitl later that evening. What problem does she probably have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: neuropathy on her peripheral. In diabetes, peripheral neuropathy is common, causing loss of sensation in the feet, making it difficult to feel injuries like stepping on a sharp object. This can lead to delayed detection of wounds, increasing the risk of infections and complications. Nephropathy (B) refers to kidney damage, carpal tunnel syndrome (C) involves compression of the median nerve in the wrist, and macroangiopathy (D) refers to large blood vessel disease, which are not directly related to the scenario described.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following types of cells is the immune system’s shutoff mechanism?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppressor T cells. Suppressor T cells regulate the immune response by inhibiting the activity of other immune cells to prevent overreaction and maintain immune balance. They play a crucial role in preventing autoimmune diseases and excessive inflammation. Plasma cells (A) produce antibodies, Helper T cells (C) assist in activating other immune cells, and B lymphocytes (D) are involved in antibody production. Suppressor T cells specifically have the function of shutting down immune responses, making them the immune system’s shutoff mechanism.
Question 3 of 9
A patient’s chest x-ray examination indicates fluid in both lung bases. Which of the ff. signs or symptoms present during the nurse’s assessment most reflects these x-ray examination findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, bilateral crackles. Fluid in both lung bases on x-ray indicates pulmonary edema, causing crackles on auscultation. Fatigue (A) is a nonspecific symptom. Peripheral edema (B) is a sign of fluid retention in the extremities, not lungs. Jugular vein distention (D) indicates increased central venous pressure, which is not specific to lung fluid.
Question 4 of 9
What is an example of a nurse modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase involves making changes based on the client's response to interventions. By adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal, the nurse demonstrates critical thinking and adaptability in response to the client's needs. This action shows that the nurse is actively assessing and revising the care plan to ensure it is effective in meeting the client's goals. Choice B is incorrect because routine monitoring is part of the assessment and implementation phases, not specifically related to modifying the care plan during evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication is part of the implementation phase and does not necessarily involve modifying the care plan. Choice D is also incorrect as completing discharge paperwork is typically part of the discharge planning phase, not the evaluation phase where modifications to the care plan are made based on client outcomes.
Question 5 of 9
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approves standardized nursing diagnoses to guide nursing care. Acute pain is a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as it helps identify and address a patient's pain experience. It is specific, measurable, and relevant for care planning. Sore throat (A) is a symptom, not a diagnosis. Sleep apnea (C) and heart failure (D) are medical conditions, not nursing diagnoses. The focus of nursing care plans is on identifying patient responses to health conditions, which is why acute pain is the most appropriate choice.
Question 6 of 9
A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is orienting a new graduate registered nurse to an oncology unit where blood product transfusions are frequently administered. In discussing ABO compatibility, the CNS presents several hypothetical scenarios. A well-informed new graduate would know the greatest likelihood of an acute hemolytic reaction would occur when giving:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A-positive blood to an A-negative client. This is because in ABO blood typing, individuals with blood type A have anti-B antibodies in their plasma. Therefore, if A-positive blood (which contains the A antigen) is given to an A-negative client (who has anti-A antibodies), there is a high risk of an acute hemolytic reaction due to the antibodies attacking the transfused blood cells. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve a mismatch of ABO blood types that would lead to a significant risk of acute hemolytic reaction. In choice B, O-positive blood can be safely transfused to an A-positive client as O blood is considered the universal donor. In choice C, O-negative blood can be safely given to an O-positive client as O-negative blood is compatible with all blood types. In choice D, B-positive blood can be safely administered to an AB-positive client as the AB blood type can receive both
Question 7 of 9
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should ask the NAP to record the patient's vital signs before administering medications. This is important for ensuring patient safety and monitoring any potential changes in the patient's condition. By having the NAP record the vital signs, the nurse can assess the patient's current status and make informed decisions regarding medication administration. Option A is incorrect because administering medications without knowing the patient's vital signs, especially if they are abnormal, can be risky. Option B is not the best choice as it delays addressing the missing vital signs. Option D is incorrect as omitting vital signs assessment is not in line with best practices for patient care.
Question 8 of 9
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. Which nutrient is not likely to be in the solution?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: trace minerals. TPN solutions typically include dextrose for energy, electrolytes for maintaining fluid balance, and amino acids for protein synthesis. Trace minerals are not typically included in TPN solutions as they are only required in small amounts and can be toxic in excess. Therefore, it is not likely to be in the solution. The other choices (A, B, D) are essential components of TPN solutions necessary for meeting the nutritional needs of the patient.
Question 9 of 9
A febrile patient’s fluid output is in excess of normal because of diaphoresis. The nurse should plan fluid replacement based on the knowledge that insensible losses in an afebrile person are normally not greater than:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (600ml/24hr) because insensible fluid losses in an afebrile person are typically around 600ml per 24 hours. Insensible losses include water lost through the skin as sweat and through the lungs during respiration. These losses are not easily quantifiable but are estimated to be around 600ml/day in normal circumstances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are either too low (A and B) or too high (D) compared to the normal range of insensible fluid losses. Selecting C as the correct answer is based on the understanding of physiological principles related to fluid balance and normal body functions.