ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 60-year-old woman has ulcerative colitis resistant to aminosalicylates and topical corticosteroids. It is decided to treat her with systemic corticosteroids. Which of the following is not a likely complication of the treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Systemic corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone) for ulcerative colitis cause side effects. Osteoporosis results from reduced bone formation over time. Diabetes stems from glucocorticoid-induced hyperglycemia. Hypertension occurs via sodium retention and vasoconstriction. Mood changes are common due to CNS effects. Weight loss isn't typical; corticosteroids cause weight gain from increased appetite and fat redistribution, making it the exception. This reflects their metabolic impact, requiring monitoring in chronic use.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has been receiving intravenous heparin. When laboratory tests are drawn, the nurse has difficulty
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin, which is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of bleeding or elevated PTT/aPTT levels. It works by binding to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant activity. Therefore, in this scenario where the patient is experiencing bloody stools, abdominal pain, and has elevated PTT/aPTT levels, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain an order for protamine sulfate to reverse the effects of heparin. This will help normalize the patient's coagulation profile and manage any bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy.
Question 3 of 5
Nonselective adrenergic blocking agents have a variety of therapeutic uses. Which agent is used for the treatment of heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carvedilol is available orally and is used to treat hypertension as well as congestive heart failure and left ventricular dysfunction after a myocardial infarction. Sotalol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking agent used to treat potentially life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias and to maintain normal sinus rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation or flutter. Propranolol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking agent used for treatment of hypertension, angina, idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) induced palpitations, angina and syncope, some cardiac arrhythmias induced by catecholamines or digoxin, pheochromocytoma; prevention of reinfarction after myocardial infarction; prophylaxis for migraine headache (which may be caused by vasodilation and is relieved by vasoconstriction, although the exact action is not clearly understood); prevention of stage fright (which is a sympathetic stress reaction to a particular situation); and treatment of essential tremors. Tamsulosin is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and is an alpha1-selective adrenergic blocking agent.
Question 4 of 5
The client receives nystatin (Nilstat) for a fungal infection in the mouth. The nurse plans to do medication education prior to discharge. What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nystatin treats oral thrush by direct mucosal contact, requiring the tablet to dissolve in the mouth for prolonged exposure before swallowing. This maximizes antifungal action against Candida. Using a straw might apply to suspensions but isn't standard for discoloration prevention, which isn't a primary issue. Crushing and mixing with juice reduces contact time, decreasing efficacy. Swallowing whole bypasses the infection site, rendering it ineffective. The nurse's best plan educates on dissolving the tablet, aligning with nystatin's topical mechanism, ensuring treatment success and preventing recurrence, making A the optimal instruction.
Question 5 of 5
Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given to a pregnant woman after delivery and the nurse is giving information to the patient about the indication of the medication. The nurse determines that the patient understands the purpose of the medication if the patient tells that it will protect her baby from which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered to Rh-negative mothers to prevent Rh incompatibility in future pregnancies. It works by preventing the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against Rh-positive fetal blood cells, which could harm subsequent Rh-positive babies. Pernicious anemia and German measles are unrelated to RhoGAM. The medication does not affect the baby's blood type but prevents the mother's immune response. Therefore, Rh incompatibility is the correct answer.