A 60-year-old patient was hospitalized to the surgical department because of infection caused by blue pus bacillus (Pseudomonas aeruginosa) which is sensative to penicillin antibiotics. Indicate which of the given penicillins has marked activity to the Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

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Foundations in Microbiology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 60-year-old patient was hospitalized to the surgical department because of infection caused by blue pus bacillus (Pseudomonas aeruginosa) which is sensative to penicillin antibiotics. Indicate which of the given penicillins has marked activity to the Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Carbenicillin disodium. Carbenicillin is a semisynthetic penicillin that has marked activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is due to its extended spectrum of activity and increased stability against beta-lactamases produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Carbenicillin is commonly used to treat infections caused by this bacterium. Choice B: Benzylpenicillin (Penicillin G) has limited activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Choice C: Methicillin is not effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Choice D: Oxacillin also has limited activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. In summary, Carbenicillin is the correct choice due to its marked activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa compared to the other penicillins listed.

Question 2 of 9

After 4 months of treatment for tuberculosis the patient began complaining of toes and fingers numbness, sensation of creeps. He was diagnosed with polyneuritis. What antituberculous drug might have caused these complications?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid. Isoniazid is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, especially with prolonged use. It can lead to symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the toes and fingers due to its neurotoxic effects. Rifampicin (B) is less likely to cause neuropathy. Ciprofloxacin (C) is not typically associated with neuropathy. Sodium salt of benzylpenicillin (D) is an antibiotic but is not known to cause polyneuritis.

Question 3 of 9

It is planned to use the territory of an old cattle burial ground (which is not used for more than 50 years) for building houses. But ground analysis revealed presence of the pathogen of the very dangerous illness. Which of the indicated microorgonisms is likely to remain in the ground for such a long time?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bacillus anthracis is a spore-forming bacterium that can survive for decades in the soil. 2. The spores are resistant to harsh conditions and can remain dormant for long periods. 3. This resilience allows Bacillus anthracis to persist in the old cattle burial ground for over 50 years. 4. Mycobacterium bovis, Brucella abortus, and Francisella tularensis are not known for long-term survival in soil. Summary: - Mycobacterium bovis, Brucella abortus, and Francisella tularensis do not have the spore-forming ability. - Mycobacterium bovis causes tuberculosis in cattle. - Brucella abortus causes brucellosis in cattle. - Francisella tularensis causes tularemia in animals and humans.

Question 4 of 9

A patient consulted a doctor about bowels disfunction. The doctor established symptoms of duodenitis and enteritis. Laboratory examination helped to make the following diagnosis: lambliosis. What medication should be administered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating lambliosis due to its effectiveness against Giardia lamblia, the parasite causing the infection. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. Erythromycin (choice B) is not effective against Giardia lamblia. Monomycin (choice C) and Chingamin (choice D) are not commonly used for treating lambliosis. Therefore, choice A, Metronidazole, is the correct medication for this patient.

Question 5 of 9

In humans, the embryonic phase of development extends from fertilization to the end of week __________, after which the developing infant is called a fetus.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 8. The embryonic phase in humans lasts until the end of week 8. During this time, the major organs and structures of the body begin to form. After week 8, the developing organism is referred to as a fetus. Choice A (2) is too early for this transition to occur, Choice B (6) is also premature, and Choice D (12) is too late as the embryonic phase ends before week 12. Therefore, the correct answer is C (8) as it accurately reflects the timeline of embryonic development in humans.

Question 6 of 9

All are correct except:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Q-fever is not transmitted only after ticks bite; it can also be transmitted through inhalation of contaminated aerosols. Rickettsia mooseri and Rickettsia provazekii can cause spotted fevers, making choice A correct. Mediterranean fever is associated with a recurrent pattern of fever, not maculopapular rash, making choice C incorrect. "None of the above" is not correct in this case as choice B is incorrect.

Question 7 of 9

There are several cases of children from boarding school suffering from sore throat. Microscopy of tonsil smears stained according Neisser method has revealed thin yellow bacilli with dark brown grains on their ends placed in the shape of Roman numeral five. What infection can be suspected in this case?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A (Diphtheria): 1. Thin yellow bacilli with dark brown grains on ends suggest Corynebacterium diphtheriae, characteristic of diphtheria. 2. Roman numeral five shape is typical of diphtheria bacilli. 3. Diphtheria causes sore throat and can spread in boarding schools. 4. Neisser staining method is used for diphtheria bacilli. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Scarlet fever is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and presents with rash, not yellow bacilli. C: Listeriosis is caused by Listeria monocytogenes, not consistent with the described findings. D: Tonsillitis can be caused by various bacteria or viruses, but the specific characteristics described do not match.

Question 8 of 9

An 18-year-old patient has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes, they are painless, thickened on palpation. In the area of genital mucous membrane there is a small-sized ulcer with thickened edges and "laquer"bottom of greyish colour. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. The presentation of painless inguinal lymph nodes, along with a small-sized ulcer with thickened edges and a "laquer" bottom of greyish color on the genital mucous membrane, is classic for primary syphilis. The painless nature of the lymph nodes and the specific characteristics of the ulcer are key features of syphilitic infection. Primary syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum and typically presents with a single, painless ulcer known as a chancre. It is important to consider syphilis in the differential diagnosis of genital ulcers. Summary of other choices: B: Tuberculosis - Unlikely, as tuberculosis typically presents with pulmonary symptoms and does not cause genital ulcers. C: Lepra - Unlikely, as leprosy does not typically present with painless inguinal lymph nodes and the specific ulcer characteristics described. D: Trophic ulcer - Unlikely

Question 9 of 9

For family Rhabdoviridae is true that:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: They are enveloped viruses. Rhabdoviridae family consists of enveloped viruses, which means they have a lipid envelope surrounding their protein coat. This envelope helps the virus in infecting host cells and evading the immune system. The other choices are incorrect because B: They cause plague is not true as Rhabdoviridae family typically causes diseases like rabies in mammals. C: They have spherical shape is incorrect as rhabdoviruses have a bullet-shaped structure. D: They infect only humans is also incorrect as Rhabdoviridae viruses can infect a wide range of hosts beyond just humans.

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