ATI RN
Quizlet ATI Pharmacology Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 60-year-old man with agitation is hospitalized on the medicine service for hyponatremia. He is being treated with intravenous fluids and haloperidol. He develops new onset of tremors and difficulty with ambulation and gait disturbance. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's new tremors, ambulation issues, and gait disturbance during hospitalization for hyponatremia suggest a drug-related cause. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, is known for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)-tremors, rigidity, and gait problems-making iatrogenic the correct answer. Infection lacks supporting fever or systemic signs. Neoplastic process is unlikely without prior hints. Viral encephalitis would involve fever, altered mentation beyond agitation, and CSF findings, none present. Haloperidol's dopamine D2 blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway induces EPS, especially in older patients, aligning with the timeline and symptoms. This iatrogenic effect is a common adverse reaction, distinguishing it from unrelated pathologies in this context.
Question 2 of 5
When applying transdermal nitroglycerin patches, which instruction by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction by the nurse when applying transdermal nitroglycerin patches is to "Rotate application sites with each dose." This is important to prevent skin irritation and tolerance to the medication. It is recommended to apply the patch to a different, clean, hairless area of skin for each dose to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Additionally, rotating application sites helps reduce the risk of skin reactions such as redness, itching, or rash.
Question 3 of 5
A patient was prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the treatment of depression and anxiety. The patient's spouse calls the clinic and reports the patient is increasingly moody and seems 'disconnected with life.' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, carries a black box warning for increased suicidal risk, particularly early in treatment, as it can paradoxically worsen mood or detachment in some patients. The spouse's report of moodiness and disconnection suggests possible suicidal ideation or adverse effects, necessitating urgent in-person assessment to evaluate safety and adjust treatment. Giving diphenhydramine is inappropriate, as it addresses neither depression nor the drug's effects and could mask symptoms. Holding medication without assessment risks untreated depression or withdrawal effects. Doubling the dose could exacerbate the issue, increasing risk. The nurse's priority is patient safety, requiring immediate evaluation by a professional, making choice B the most responsible and evidence-based response.
Question 4 of 5
A 24-year-old woman medical student with a history of depression presents to the emergency department with tachycardia and shallow breathing. After her initial presentation, she begins to become confused and has a seizure. An ECG is performed and shows QT prolongation. An arterial blood gas shows metabolic acidosis. She has been taking antidepressants for a couple of years, but her depression is worsening. She had a test yesterday and told her mother that she felt she did poorly. There is concern that she has overdosed on her medication. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: TCA overdose (QT prolongation, seizures, acidosis) requires sodium bicarbonate . It corrects acidosis and stabilizes cardiac membranes. Ammonium chloride worsens acidosis. Atropine and Flumazenil are irrelevant. N-acetylcysteine (E) is for acetaminophen. Bicarbonate addresses her acute toxicity.
Question 5 of 5
The student nurse is studying for a pharmacology exam and notices that many of the adrenergic blocking antagonists drugs studied in class have what suffix?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The suffix -lol is seen in many of the drug names for adrenergic blocking antagonists. The suffix -aine would indicate a topical anesthetic, whereas -azole indicates an antifungal, and the suffix -triptan relates to the triptans. The nurse should be familiar with drug name suffixes to aid in identifying drug classes and their therapeutic uses.