Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication adverse effects. Gynecomastia in a 60-year-old man is often caused by medications like spironolactone, cimetidine, and certain antipsychotics. To determine the causative factor, a thorough medication history review is crucial. Age-related physiologic changes (choice A) do not typically lead to gynecomastia in men. Poor nutrition (choice C) and fluid overload (choice D) are not common causes of gynecomastia in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Utilize a pressure-reducing mattress. This intervention is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers in patients at risk for impaired skin integrity, such as those with HIV. By redistributing pressure, a pressure-reducing mattress helps to alleviate pressure on vulnerable areas, reducing the risk of skin breakdown. Limiting physical activity (B) can lead to muscle atrophy and worsen skin integrity. Applying antibiotic ointment (C) may not address the root cause of skin breakdown. Avoiding synthetic fabrics (D) may be helpful in some cases, but it is not as effective as using a pressure-reducing mattress.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Viral set point. The viral set point refers to the stable level of HIV in the body after the initial infection. This state indicates a balance between viral replication and the immune response. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Static stage implies no change, which is not the case with HIV levels fluctuating; B) Latent stage refers to a period of inactivity, not the stable state described; D) Window period is the time between infection and detectable antibodies, not the equilibrium state described.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identifying the offending agent, if possible. This is prioritized in contact dermatitis to prevent further exposure and recurrence. By identifying the specific irritant or allergen, the nurse can guide the patient in avoiding it, leading to effective management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while promoting adequate perfusion, safe use of topical antihistamines, and teaching the use of an EpiPen may be relevant in certain situations, they do not directly address the root cause of contact dermatitis, which is exposure to the offending agent.