A 60-year-old male with diabetes and hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. Amlodipine works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Amlodipine works by blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels, leading to vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance. This results in reduced blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers like amlodipine do not inhibit norepinephrine reuptake (B), stimulate beta-1 adrenergic receptors (C), or increase sodium excretion in the kidneys (D). These mechanisms are associated with other classes of medications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Corticosteroids can increase blood sugar levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake in cells. This leads to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because corticosteroids usually cause hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids typically increase appetite, not decrease it. Choice D is incorrect because weight gain, not weight loss, is a common side effect of corticosteroid use.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increasing serotonin levels in the brain by inhibiting its reuptake. Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which means it inhibits the reuptake of serotonin in the brain, leading to increased levels of serotonin available for neurotransmission. This helps alleviate symptoms of depression by enhancing serotonin signaling. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sertraline specifically targets serotonin reuptake, not norepinephrine, dopamine, monoamine oxidase, or acetylcholine.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. Zoledronic acid is a bisphosphonate that works by inhibiting osteoclast activity, thereby reducing bone resorption. This helps in increasing bone density and strength in conditions like osteoporosis. Other choices are incorrect because zoledronic acid does not directly affect bone formation by osteoblasts (choice A), calcium absorption from the gut (choice C), or the secretion of parathyroid hormone (choice D).

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that helps relax the bladder muscles, reducing urinary frequency and urgency in overactive bladder. Furosemide (B) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, not overactive bladder. Amlodipine (C) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure, not overactive bladder. Metformin (D) is an antidiabetic drug used for managing type 2 diabetes, not overactive bladder. Oxybutynin is the most appropriate choice for treating overactive bladder due to its muscle relaxant effects on the bladder.