A 60-year-old male with chronic pain is prescribed hydrocodone. Hydrocodone works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hydrocodone is an opioid analgesic that belongs to the group of opioids. 2. Opioids like hydrocodone bind to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other parts of the body. 3. By binding to these receptors, hydrocodone modulates pain perception and response. 4. This mechanism of action results in the alleviation of pain in individuals. 5. Therefore, choice A is correct as it accurately describes how hydrocodone works. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of tricyclic antidepressants, not opioids like hydrocodone. - Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the mechanism of action of NSAIDs, not opioids. - Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of local anesthetics, not opioids.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluoxetine. It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that works by increasing serotonin levels in the brain, helping to alleviate symptoms of anxiety and depression. Sertraline (A) and Escitalopram (D) are also SSRIs commonly used for this purpose, but Fluoxetine is specifically known for treating both anxiety and depression. Clonazepam (B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, but it does not directly affect serotonin reuptake.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin in the brain. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), works by blocking the reuptake of serotonin in the brain, leading to increased levels of serotonin available in the synaptic cleft. This helps regulate mood and alleviate symptoms of depression. Summary: - B: Increasing the release of norepinephrine and dopamine: This is incorrect as fluoxetine specifically targets serotonin reuptake, not norepinephrine or dopamine. - C: Blocking serotonin receptors: This is incorrect as fluoxetine does not block serotonin receptors but rather inhibits its reuptake. - D: Inhibiting the reuptake of dopamine: This is incorrect as fluoxetine primarily affects serotonin reuptake, not dopamine.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reducing inflammation in the airways. Budesonide is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, making it an effective treatment for asthma. Inflammation in the airways is a key factor in asthma symptoms, and corticosteroids like budesonide help to decrease this inflammation, thereby improving breathing and reducing asthma symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because budesonide does not work by blocking leukotriene receptors, inhibiting histamine release, or relaxing bronchial smooth muscle. Instead, its main mechanism of action is through its anti-inflammatory properties.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three medications (Diphenhydramine, Cetirizine, and Loratadine) are antihistamines that work by blocking histamine receptors to relieve symptoms of allergic rhinitis. Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine, while Cetirizine and Loratadine are second-generation antihistamines with longer durations of action and less sedation. Therefore, choosing all of the above encompasses the various antihistamines commonly used to treat allergic rhinitis effectively.